Land Empires vs. Maritime Empires

Land Empires Control of huge lands & people Requires large military investment Vulnerable to land & sea routes Requires massive infrastructure investment Superior technology used to suppress natives Expanded contact with imperial subjects Dependence on native collaborators

Maritime Empires Control of trade via limited ports Production & shipment of commodities Colonization of limited territory Limited military confrontations & investments Exploitation of improved maritime technology Expanded exploration & control of distance areas Dependence on native collaborators

Comparing Empires 1450-1750 Most maintained Absolutist rule (exception England and the Netherlands) All maintained and extended territories through gunpowder weaponry All dominated trade routes and gained revenue through protectionism Most were dominated by religion and were conflicted by religious pluralism Sugar, Spice and slave trade were fundamental to their economy. All will establish a policy of infrastructure building and religious zeal. All will contend with management of a multiethnic empire

Comparing Empires 1450-1750 Maritime were predominantly Christian Some were privately invested Maritime empires were exploitative and competitive “gunpowder” empires were ruled through Islamic forces Overland Empires lost monopoly of Indian Ocean trade after Battle of Lepanto Interaction with the “West” was generally through ports established by European interests (Calicut, Goa, Aden) By 17th century many Islamic Empires became fundamentally more conservative and increasingly more insular contributing to their declining commercial role.

Examples Can you name examples of each type of empire? Why is maritime technology and empire building more influential 1450-1750 than land-based empire building? What were some components of success of both? Failure of both?

Today’s Activity Directions: Read documents about the Coffeehouse and the Evolution of its Story. How would you describe coffeehouses and their role in society?  Why were they feared by governments, but celebrated by individuals?  What elements do you recognize in 17th century Middle Eastern coffeehouses from European history and our contemporary society? Develop a comp thesis (one land one sea) on back board

One land, one sea From 1450-1750 in both the Ottoman Empire and Spain, rulers exercised divine right absolute power over the masses, both developed large multi-ethnic empires through their military (gunpowder technologies0, however Spain would establish a large overseas colonial Empire in the Americas while the Ottoman would extend primarily overland in SW Asia and Eastern Europe IN 1450-1750 both the Russians and English would ethnocentrically contribute to the slaughter of native populations, utilize the fur trade to extract this lucrative global commodity, however, the Russian’s would not embrace fully the ideas of the “West” ( science, enlightenment) while the coffeehouses of England would be a penny education for science and technology From 1450-1750 the Mughal and France would both sponsor large commodity exchanges of textiles and agricultural products, however, the Mughal(under Akbar) would be far more religiously tolerant than France (under Louis XIV) and the Mughal would foster exports from European ports like Goa and Calicut while France would utilize the trading posts in the Atlantic in New France and NE Americas From 1450-1750 both Portugal and the Kongo were engaging in reciprocal trading relations of manufactured products (Portuguese firearms and Rum for African slaves for Portuguese sugar plantations in Brazil), both had diplomats in their respective courts (Ndonga and Lisbon) however, the Portuguese were not interested in converting to local African cultures while African Monarchs like Queen Ndzinga and King Alfonso would convert to Christianity (Antonianism)