Integrated Risk Management

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Presentation transcript:

Integrated Risk Management

Case Summary What is the problem at hand? New Proposal to provide combined protection against several risks, including currency exposure and traditionally-insurable risks. First step in an integrated “enterprise” risk management program. Should the Finance Committee approve the proposal?

Current Risk Management Plan

What is the goal of this risk management program? Reduce the volatility of earnings. Minimize the “Cost of Risk.” “Cost of Risk” = Retention + Admin Expenses + Insurance and Option Premia. Does this always achieve “Maximize Shareholder’s Value?” (not necessarily)

How is Exchange Rate Risk Currently Handled? Option written on a basket of 20 currencies (85% of profits). Long Put (at-the-money). Strike = Blend of exchange rates. Offered protection if U.S. Dollar strengthened. Can walk away if U.S. Dollar weakens. Matured Quarterly OTC or Exchange-traded option? (OTC)

Pros Cons New Plan One Issuer of Protection Only one deductible Lower Costs Lower Standard Deviation What if the “one” insurer goes under (AIG!) New Idea – is it sound? Too Complicated? Are the deductibles and limits “correct?” Still not a fully-integrated “enterprise” risk program (but arguably a move in the right direction)

New Plan - Methodology

New Plan - Methodology

Why does plan cost less? AIG is being charitable? (no) AIG is passing on some economies of scale because they are just writing one contract (maybe a small amount of savings). AIG is passing on savings from the gained benefit of diversifying their business into new areas? (probably not. They have plenty of other areas of insurance). Portfolio Effect! Shift from individual risks mattering to an aggregate change of loss (risk). YES!

Old Plan New Plan “Insurance on a Portfolio” “Portfolio of Insurance” “Portfolio of Options” “Insurance on a Portfolio” “Option on a Portfolio”

$30 Million “Acceptable” Loss Example Old Plan New Plan Risk 1 $10 million deductible Risk 2 $10 million deductible Risk 3 $10 million deductible $30 million deductible for any claims from Risks 1, 2, or 3 Suppose there is a $25 million “Risk 1” claim, but no Risk 2 or Risk 3…. You will receive a $15 million payout with the old plan, but nothing with the new. Therefore cheaper to the insurer!

Another Interpretation: More insurance = Higher Premium Portfolio of Options: Buy at-the-money puts on each stock Today Possible Outcomes in 1 year Value of Stock A $100 $150 $50 Value of Stock B $75 Value of Stock Portfolio $200 $300 $125 Payoff of Put on A N/A $0 Payoff of Put on B $25 Combined Payoff of Both Puts

Another Interpretation: More insurance = Higher Premium Option on Portfolio: Buy at-the-money put on Stock Portfolio Today Possible Outcomes in 1 year Value of Stock A $100 $150 $50 Value of Stock B $75 Value of Stock Portfolio $200 $300 $125 Payoff of Put written on Stock Portfolio $0

Another Interpretation: More insurance = Higher Premium Today Possible Outcomes in 1 year Value of Stock A $100 $150 $50 Value of Stock B $75 Value of Stock Portfolio $200 $300 $125 Payoffs from Portfolio of Options $0 Payoffs from Option on a Portfolio

Use the Black-Scholes Model to show that the new plan should be cheaper! Suppose that you have the following: Stock A: Current Price $100; Standard Deviation 50 Stock B: Correlation Coefficient (rho) between A & B is 0 (like in the case) 1 share each of A and B are invested equally in your portfolio (weights = 50%) Therefore, current portfolio value = $200 Risk-free rate of 6% Recall: Var of a 2-asset Portfolio… Var = wA2σA2+wB2σB2+2wAwBσAσBρ(A,B) Recall: Standard Deviation = Square Root of Variance

Use the Black-Scholes Model to show that the new plan should be cheaper! Your mission: Protect the value of the portfolio. Must not drop below $200 one year from now (T = 1). Calculate the Premium to be paid under the following scenarios: Scenario 1: You decide to enter into two at-the-money options, one with A as the underlying asset and the other with B as the underlying asset. Scenario 2: You decide to enter into one at-the-money option with the portfolio as a whole as the underlying asset. Which is more expensive? The “portfolio of options” or the “option on the portfolio?”

Scenario 1: Total Cost 2 Contacts…. 2 x $16.39 = $32.78 Put Price: European Put   Stock Price 100 Strike Price Risk Free Rate 6.00% Expiration (in years) 1 Volatility (standard dev) 50.00% Continuous Div Yield -d1 & -d2 rounded Pr (X≤x) d1= 0.37 -0.37 0.3557 d2= -0.13 0.13 0.5517 Put Price: 16.38714932 2 Contacts…. 2 x $16.39 = $32.78

Scenario 2: Total Cost European Put   Stock Price 200 Strike Price Risk Free Rate 6.00% Expiration (in years) 1 Volatility (standard dev) 35.36% Continuous Div Yield -d1 & -d2 rounded Pr (X≤x) d1= 0.346483258 -0.3465 0.3645 d2= -0.007116742 0.0071 0.5028 Put Price: 21.8038415 Var = wA2σA2+wB2σB2+2wAwBσAσBρ(A,B) = (.5)2x(.5)2+(.5)2x(.5)2+2(.5)(.5)(.5)(.5)(0) = Var = 0.125 => sqrt(Var) = 35.36%

Likelihood of Plan Acceptance? What actually happened?