Multiple Choice Questions for discussion. Part 2

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Presentation transcript:

Multiple Choice Questions for discussion. Part 2 03/2012

18) Which of the following statements regarding the measurement of health and disease in a population is true? a) a rate is the number of times an event has occurred during a certain time interval divided by the number of persons at risk during the same interval b) when calculating a ratio, the numerator is a portion of the denominator c) a ratio is the number of times an event has occurred during a certain time interval multiplied by the number of times an event has not occurred during the same interval d) when calculating a rate, the numerator is not a portion of the denominator e) none of the above 03/2012

28) In describing the leading causes of death in Canada, two very different lists emerge, depending on whether proportional mortality rates or person-years of life lost (PYLL) are used. This is because: a) one measure uses a calendar year and the other a fiscal year to calculate annual experience b) one measure includes morbidity as well as mortality experience c) both rates exclude deaths occurring over the age of 70 d) different definitions of “cause of death” are used e) one measure gives greater weight to deaths occurring in younger age groups 03/2012

26) All of the following statements are true EXCEPT: a) one indirect measure of a population’s health status is the percentage of low birth weight neonates b) accidents are the largest cause of potential years of life lost in Canada c) the Canadian population is steadily undergoing rectangularization of mortality d) morbidity is defined as all health outcomes excluding death e) the neonatal mortality rate is the number of infant deaths divided by the number of live births multiplied by 1000 03/2012

38) In 1981, the crude birth rate in Ontario was approximately 14 per 1000 and the crude death rate was 7 per 1000. The estimated rate of net migration was –1 per 1000. The growth rate of the province, per 1000 population was: a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 20 e) 22 03/2012

Infectious Disease Control Multiple Choice Questions for discussion April, 2011

11) A group of 50 people are exposed to virus “A” 11) A group of 50 people are exposed to virus “A”. Of those 50 people, 9 develop a mild infection, 10 become seriously ill, and 3 die. The attack rate of virus “A” in the population would be: a) 22/50 b) 9/50 c) 10/50 d) 19/50 e) 13/50 A Attack Rate does not take into consideration disease severity. It is simply the proportion of exposed people who become ill. One might argue about including ‘sub-clinical’ cases but we were giving no information about them. April, 2011

15) Examples of secondary prevention would include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Pap smear for cervical cancer b) chemoprophylaxis in a recent TB converter c) proctoscopy for rectal cancer d) immunization for Haemophilus influenzae B e) mammography for breast cancer D Immunization is primary prevention. Traditionally, cancer screening (pap smear or mammography) is regarded as secondary prevention. This is true if you detect early cancer. However, if you are detecting pre-cancerous lesions, one could argue that it is primary prevention. You should not make this point on the exam! April, 2011

23) Which of the following is the most important justification for mounting a population screening program for a specific disease? a) early detection of the disease of interest is achieved b) the specificity of the screening test is high c) the natural history of the disease is favorably altered by early detection d) effective treatment is available e) the screening technology is available C. Screening should only be used when it makes a difference to outcomes. Being able to detect disease at an earlier stage ((a) or (e)) is enough since we may just give people more years of ‘illness’. Similarly, having an effective treatment doesn’t mean screening should be used, unless earlier treatment leads to better outcomes. For option (b), that is wrong - you want high sensitivity, not high specificity. April, 2011

27) Which of the following statements is FALSE: a) the data collected on a death certificate is uniform and in conformity with WHO guidelines b) Section 10 of the Coroner’s Act states that the coroner’s office must be notified if a patient dies after some mishap such as leaving an instrument in the body at surgery c) diseases which be reported to the local medical officer of health include AIDS, food poisoning, influenza and gonorrhea d) a tuberculin reaction greater than 5 mm is considered positive in all individuals e) all of the above are true (none is false) April, 2011

25) Active immunization was important in control of each of the following childhood communicable diseases EXCEPT: a) diphtheria b) polio c) measles d) scarlet fever e) pertussis D. There is no vaccine for scarlet fever which is a bacterial illness. Control focuses on antibiotic treatment of streptococcal diseases. April, 2011

29) Differentiation between a point-source epidemic and a progressive (propagated) epidemic is made by: a) considering the characteristics of the infectious agent b) determining the level of immunity in the community c) determining the number of persons infected and calculating the attack rate d) plotting the distribution of cases by time onset e) none of the above D. The plot is an epidemic curve. There are distinct shapes for propagated and point-source epidemics. Of course, a continuing point-source epidemic can muddy the waters. Parts (a) and (b) require you to know the agent. This won’t be known in a new epidemic. April, 2011

30) The occurrence of an illness at a rate of above that expected is called: a) hyperendemic b) epidemic c) endemic d) enzootic e) pandemic B. This is the definition of an epidemic. April, 2011

42) Each of the following is an example of primary prevention EXCEPT: a) genetic counseling of parents with one retarded child b) nutritional supplements in pregnancy c) immunization against tetanus d) chemoprophylaxis in a recent tuberculin converter e) speed limits on highways D. Chemoprophylaxis in a TB converter is secondary prevention since the test conversion is presumptive evidence of infection. The purpose of the chemo is to modify the course of the disease and prevent serious outcomes. April, 2011

43) The classical “epidemiological triad” of disease causation consists of factors which fall into which of the following categories: a) host, reservoir, environment b) host, vector, environment c) reservoir, agent, vector d) host, agent, environment e) host, age, environment D. The triad is ‘host, agent and environmental’ factors. Age is a host factor. Reservoir and vector are environmental factors. April, 2011

45) The difference between a common point source outbreak and a propagated outbreak of illness is that: a) all cases in a common point source outbreak occur within one incubation period of the exposure b) the attack rates in propagated outbreaks are higher c) person-to-person transmission is a feature of common source outbreaks d) case fatality rates in common source outbreaks are generally higher e) the source of infection in propagated outbreaks is more easily contained than in common source outbreaks A. This question assumes that the source is really a ‘point’ (i.e. it exists for only a short period of time). The point of a propagated epidemic is that the disease is spread from one person to another. This requires multiple incubation periods (in contrast to point source where the lack of spread means that the epidemic dies out within one incubation period (unless the point source continues to be infectious). There is no reason why the severity of one type would be different. Containing infection is easier in point source outbreaks since there is only one exposure point to worry about. April, 2011

C. 55 cases in 173 kids. April, 2011

46) Which of the following are strategies for control of disease: a) population immunization b) contact tracing to offer treatment to all who could be infected c) monitoring increases in the population of certain disease vectors d) having physicians report curable, potentially serious diseases e) all of the above are true April, 2011

50) All of the following are responsibilities of local public health units in Canada EXCEPT: a) communicable disease control b) health education c) investigation of sudden death d) immunization e) health promotion April, 2011

More MCQs Here are some more questions that students can use to test their own knowledge: http://www.medicine.uottawa.ca/sim/data/Self-test_Qs_Outbreaks_e.htm The questions contain comments on the answers, to illustrate why a given response is not correct April, 2011