Anesthesia 1 Final Exam Review

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Presentation transcript:

Anesthesia 1 Final Exam Review 55 multiple choice 3 calculations scantron

Preanesthetic Time Period 5 questions

ASA Risk Assessment Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4 Class 5 Slight risk, minor disease High risk, significantly compromised Moribund Normal, healthy Moderate risk, obvious disease

You shine a light into the right eye of a dog and the left pupil constricts. What is the best explanation? A. head trauma B. neuropathy C. normal reflex D. this is not possible

Preanesthetics 10 questions

Preanesthetics 1. Anticholinergics 2. Tranquilizers and Sedatives phenothiazines benzodiazepines alpha-2 agonists 3. Opioids

What are anticholinergics primarily used for? A. To sedate patients B. To relieve anxiety C. To relieve pain D. To “protect the heart”

Premedications Acepromazine Rompun Valium Morphine Glycopyrrolate Benzodiazepine Narcotic Anticholinergic Phenothiazine Alpha-2 Agonist

Premedications Butorphanol Atropine Hydromorphone Dexdomitor Chlorpromazine Zolazepam Benzodiazepine Narcotic Anticholinergic Phenothiazine Alpha-2 Agonist

Reversal Agents Yohimbine Narcan Antisedan Flumazinel Nalbuphine Valium Fentanyl Xylazine Dexmedetomidine Morphine

List some effects of anticholinergics. Prevent bradycardia May cause tachycardia at high doses Mydriasis Blocks stimulation of vagus nerve

Induction Agents and Injectables 10 questions

Injectables Barbiturates Propofol Dissociatives Etomidate Guafenesin Locals Neuromuscular blocking agents

The combination drug Telazol contains A. Diazepam and ketamine B. Diazepam and xylazine C. Zolazepam and tiletamine D. xylazine and tiletamine

Which of the following would not provide any analgesic effects? A. dexdomitor B. narcan C. lidocaine D. xylazine

Which of the following is not an example of an analgesic? A. tetracaine B. diprivan C. N2O D. butorphanol

Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is A. Useful to prevent movement B. Not to be used for cesarean section C. An excellent caudal analgesic D. An old procedure with little value in veterinary anesthesia today

Injectables Thiopental Pancuronium Propofol Bupivicaine Etomidate Guaifenesin Tiletamine Dissociative Local Muscle relaxant Non-barbiturate anesthetic Barbiturate NMB Heart friendly induction

Which of the following is not a barbiturate? A. pentobarbital B. thiopental C. phenobarbital D. etomidate

Injectable Anesthetics Used to induce anesthesia Given 15-20 minutes after a pre-medication Ideal characteristics: Rapid onset and recovery Non-toxic Lack of adverse cardiovascular and respiratory effects Rapid metabolism Analgesic effects Muscle relaxation When possible, they should be given to effect.

All could be used for epidural anesthesia except: A. lidocaine B. morphine C. ketamine

Inhalants 8 questions

Advantages of Inhalants Concentration of anesthesia in the body is changed by adjusting the delivered concentration to the patient This is done by adjusting the vaporizer on the machine. Inhalants are eliminated by the lungs on exhale, and have minimal metabolism. At appropriate concentrations, they provide analgesia by creating unconsciousness They can be used as maintenance agents and duration time is not an issue

Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia A. Decreases the amount of inhalant anesthetic required B. Slows the induction process C. Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required D. Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required

The ideal inhalant anesthetic would have all of the following characteristics except A. Low vapor pressure B. High solubility coefficient C. Low MAC D. Provide good muscle relaxation

Biotransformation 0.2% 2-5% 0.02 20-46% Desflurane Halothane Isoflurane Sevoflurane

Variables MAC Solubility Coefficient Vapor Pressure Delivery method Induction recovery rates Potency

Monitoring 8 questions

Pulse oximeters give an estimate of A. Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood B. Respiratory rate C. Cardiac output D. Oxygen content of arterial blood

Equipment Pulse oximeter Esophageal stethoscope EKG Capnograph Blood Gas Blood Pressure HR and rhythm Expired CO2 Blood pH Systolic and diastolic HR and RR Saturation of hemoglobin

Parameters 1. vital signs HR, RR and depth, MM, CRT, pulse strength, BP and temperature 2. reflexes (involuntary response to stimuli) Palpebral, corneal, pedal, swallowing, laryngeal, PLR 3. other indicators Movement, eye position, pupil size, muscle tone, nystagmus, secretions, response to surgical stimuli * The most reliable sign of inadequate depth is patient movement.

Stages and Planes Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3, plane 1 Stage 3, plane 2 Excitement phase Overdose Early overdose Too light Too deep Optimum Voluntary movement

Endotracheal Intubation 6 questions

Endotracheal Tube Types Red rubber Vinyl Silicone Anode Cheap Least irritating High volume, low pressure cuff Low volume, high pressure cuff Armored Can see respirations

Intubation Confirming proper placement Equipment used Tube size Cuff inflation Extubation

Which of the following best describes a silicone endotracheal tube? A. Relatively inexpensive, flexible, low volume and high pressure cuff and a tendency to dry and crack over time B. More expensive, less irritating to tissues with a high volume and low pressure cuff C. Transparent, stiffer tube comprised of PVC requiring manual deflation of cuff D. Contains a coil of metal or nylon embedded into the rubber to resist collapse

Equipment 8 questions

Machine 8 questions on machine Know these parts O2 and N2O cylinders O2 pressure gauge Vaporizer O2 flush valve Charcoal canisters CO2 canisters Manometer Breathing bag Circuits (rebreathing and non-rebreathing) Scavenging systems

The oxygen pressure gauge A. indicates how much oxygen is in the cylinder B. indicates how much oxygen in L/min is delivered to the patient C. reduces pressure of oxygen entering the low pressure system D. all of the above

A.

A non-precision vaporizer would be placed A. out of the circle B. in the circle C. in the high pressure portion of the system D. either in or out of the circle

B. non precision are also known as VIC

Which of the following machine parts will remove carbon dioxide from the system? A. scavenger system B. charcoal canister C. soda lyme canister D. humid vent

C.

Flow meter setting are read in A. mmHg B. L/min C. cm/H2O D. %

B.

The manometer is used to evaluate A. pressure of oxygen in cylinder B. pressure in the breathing circuit C. inhalant and oxygen flow rate D. pressure in the oxygen line

B.

A non-rebreather is used when the patient A. is larger than 80 pounds B. suffering from alkalosis C. under anesthesia for brief procedures only D. is smaller

D.

Rebreathing systems allow for all of the following except A. retention of heat B. recycling of inhalant C. faster response to dial changes on the vaporizer D. the use of a carbon dioxide canister

C. you may see slower response to dial setting changes due to the recirculation of inhalant to the patient.

All machines require A. a compressed gas source B. a scavenger C. a reservoir bag D. all of the above

D.