1. A310 TRANSITION COURSE SYSTEMS KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONAIRE
SATA INTERNACIONAL
A310 TRANSITION COURSE
SYSTEMS KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONAIRE

2. 1. The cabin emergency lighting system power is supplied by:
a) Normal AC bus.
b) DC Essential bus or (in emergency power) by integral batteries.
c) AC emergency bus.

3. 2. Selecting the STORM switch ON (on the overhead panel) :
a) Brightens up fluorescent tubes and flood lights in the cockpit to maximum intensity.
b) Connects the Static Dischargers on the wings in case of storm.
c) There is no STORM switch.

4. 3. The 3-position NOSE switch on the overhead panel:
a) Turns ON or OFF either the T.O. light or the TAXI light in the nose wheel.
b) Turns ON the radome light.
c) Controls both lights in the nose wheel to high (T.O.) or low (TAXI) intensity or off (OFF).

5. 4. The 4 type A cabin doors:
a) Are manually open in normal operations and pneumatically assisted for opening in emergency.
b) Have escape slides that will release and inflate (if armed) when the door is opened from either the outside or the inside.
c) Answers a) and b) are correct.

6. 5. The A-310 length and wingspan are approximately:
a) 46,5mts and 44mts respectively.
b) 49mts and 46,5mts respectively.
c) 44mts and 49,5mts respectively.

7. 6. The minimum width of paved surface to. perform
6. The minimum width of paved surface to perform a 180º turn with the A-310 with its CG at 35% is:
a) 44 meters.
b) 34, 65 meters
c) 43,85 meters

8. 7. In flight, if the air conditioning packs are
7. In flight, if the air conditioning packs are inoperative, ventilation with outside air can be provided by:
a) The APU bleed.
b) The Ram Air inlet (at or below FL100 and with diff. press.< 1psi)
c) The only way to ventilate in flight is with the A/C packs.

9. 8. The cabin air distribution system uses :
a) Air from the hot and cold manifolds without any recirculation.
b) Air from the hot and cold manifolds and some re-circulated air (from above the ceiling by three fans).
c) Air directly drawn from the engine bleeds.

10. 9. With the Pack Valve pushbutton switch in AUTO
9. With the Pack Valve pushbutton switch in AUTO position (pressed in):
a) The valve closes electrically when the respective ENG FIRE switch is pulled.
b) The valve closes by spring force if not supplied by pneumatic pressure.
c) a) and b) are correct..

11. 10. The ECON FLOW pushbutton switch :
a) When pressed in (in flight), pack flow is reduced to 68% of normal flow (lower demand of bleed air = more fuel economy).
b) When released out (normal position), ECAM message on Memo page is “ECON FLOW SELECTED”
c) Does not affect the pack valves in flight.

12. 11. Each of the two Outflow Valves is operated by:
a) Two independent electric motors, each one controlled by its automatic system.
b) Two independent electric motors, one controlled by any of the two automatic sys and the other by the manual sys.
c) Three electric motors, which are independently controlled by one of the two automatic sys or by the manual system.

13. 12. After landing, the aircraft is depressurized:
a) Automatically by the active automatic system, so that both outflow valves are fully open 45 sec after touchdown.
b) Manually, always.
c) Automatically, always.

14. 13. When both the OUTFLOW valve (guarded)
13. When both the OUTFLOW valve (guarded) pushbutton switches on the overhead panel are selected OFF (released out):
a) The electric power is removed from the valves motors and the valves stop in whatever position they were.
b) The outflow valves, the pack valves, the overboard extract valve, the safety valves and the RAM AIR inlet valve are controlled closed.
c) The electric power is removed and the valves open.

15. 14. Following a take off at any weight within the
14. Following a take off at any weight within the MTOW and the MLW an immediate landing is permitted.
a) True, but only in exceptional conditions and the overweight landing procedure must be followed.
b) False. The maximum landing weight (MLW) must be respected.
c) True. An auto land is recommended.

16. 15. The MTOW, MLW and MZFW for CS-TKM (msn 661) are respectively:
a) kg, kg and kg.
b) kg, kg and 80000kg.
c) kg, kg and 80000kg.

17. 16. The VMCG,VMCA, VMO and MMO are respectively (speeds in Kts CAS):
a) 111kts, 115kts, 340kts and M 0.84.
b) 110kts, 120kts, 350kts and M 0.80.
c) 111kts, 115kts, 350kts and M 0.84.

18. 17. The slats/flaps maximum operating altitude is:
a) The Certified flight envelope.
b) ft.
c) ft.

19. 18. The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of:
a) Thrust Control Computer (TCC), Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) and 2 A/P’s
b) 2 Flight Directors 2 Autopilots and 2 Auto-throttle systems (ATS1&2).
c) Autopilots (2) and Auto-throttles (2).

20. 19. A failure of a related system resulting in the loss of FD1:
a) Will result in the loss of AP1.
b) Only affects FD1 itself.
c) Will result in the loss of both AP1 and AP2

21. 20. Autopilot 1 hydraulic actuators are powered by:
a) Blue Hydraulic system.
b) Yellow Hydraulic system.
c) Green Hydraulic system.

22. 21. Which of the following are the Autopilot Basic Modes?
a) Altitude Hold and Heading Select.
b) Vertical Speed and Heading.
c) Glide Slope and Localizer.

23. 22. In a Level Change climb, the Autopilot will :
a) Adjust the pitch to maintain the selected speed.
b) Adjust the pitch to maintain the selected Vertical Speed.
c) Maintain a fixed pitch attitude.

24. 23. In a Level Change climb, the Auto-throttle will :
a) Engage Thrust mode (THR green on FMA) and maintain thrust limit.
b) Modulate the thrust to maintain the selected speed.
c) Modulate the thrust to maintain the selected vertical speed.

25. 24. The SRS mode (Speed Reference System) is part
24. The SRS mode (Speed Reference System) is part of the combined mode for Takeoff, and in case of Windshear detected during initial climb:
a) Should not be followed, its guidance is not approved in those conditions.
b) Provides valid pitch guidance that even includes a “survival strategy” if the aircraft Vertical Speed drops to zero.
c) Commands 20º nose up.

26. 25. The Autopilot basic lateral mode HDG:
a) Can be selected by pressing the HDG/S switch on the FCU when Heading Select (HDG/S) is the active mode.
b) Will roll the aircraft wings level if bank angle was greater than 5º at time of engagement.
c) Both a) and b) are correct.

27. 26. With the Heading Select mode engaged, the aircraft will:
a) Always turn in the same direction the HGD SEL knob is turn (even if the turn is more the 180º).
b) Turn in the shortest direction to the selected heading.
c) Display “HDG” green on the FMA..

28. 27. The autopilot VOR mode:
a) Should be used for VOR approaches.
b) Is to be used for VOR en-route navigation only.
c) Limits the aircraft bank to 15º regardless of Bank Limit knob position.

29. 28. The autopilot LAND mode:
a) Can only be armed above 1000ft RA.
b) Arms simultaneously and then engages a vertical mode (G/S) and a lateral mode (LOC) to track an ILS beam.
c) Both a) and b) are correct.

30. 29. Although depending on fuel density, CS-TKM max
29. Although depending on fuel density, CS-TKM max fuel capacity is approximately:
a) kg.
b) kg.
c) kg

31. 30. The fuel in the AUX tank:
a) Is transferred to the CTR tank automatically using pressurized air.
b) Can be transferred to any other tank.
c) Can feed the engines directly.

32. 31. With the Automatic Fuel Feed system operating:
a) The OUTER TK pumps, the INNER TK pumps and the CTR TK pumps are controlled by this system.
b) The CTR TK (if not empty) will feed during the 3 minutes after the first engine is started, then the INNER TKs will feed.
c) Switching OFF the two CTR TK pumps will not affect the system.

33. 32. In normal operations, the OUTR TK pumps are. always on
32. In normal operations, the OUTR TK pumps are always on. Why is the fuel in these tanks the last to be consumed?
a) The fuel in the OUTR tanks has to travel longer to reach the engines.
b) The INNER and CTR tanks pumps output pressure is higher than the OUTR tank pumps.
c) Because that is the logic of the Automatic Fuel Feed system

34. 33. The fuel cross-feed valve purpose is to:
a) Allow fuel consumption from the opposite or transfer from one side to the other (both in flight and on the ground).
b) Make possible keeping a laterally balanced fuel load (e.g. in case of engine failure in flight) by allowing fuel transfer between wing tanks.
c) When open, to allow an engine or the APU to be supplied from the opposite side of the fuel cross-feed line.

35. 34. When on ECAM fuel page the quantity indicators
34. When on ECAM fuel page the quantity indicators of the right wing tanks (OUTR and INR) are flashing, this is:
a) An Advisory Condition and means that the total qty of the right wing tanks is at least kg above the total qty of the left wing tanks.
b) The right wing tanks are approaching a low level condition.
c) The total qty in those tanks is 900kg lower then on the left tanks.

36. 35. The CGCC aims to reduce fuel consumption in
35. The CGCC aims to reduce fuel consumption in flight by moving aft the aircraft CG. In order to achieve this, the CGCC:
a) Computes the aircraft Gross Weight and CG which are displayed on ECAM.
b) Controls fuel transfer to and from the Trim TK in order to maintain the CG target.
c) a) and b) are correct.

37. 36. Forward fuel transfer from the Trim TK:
a) It’s only possible to the CTR TK. If the Trim TK fuel pumps are not operating, gravity transfer takes place.
b) It’s possible to any other TK except the ACT.
c) It’s only possible to the INR’s or CTR TK’s.

38. 37. The APU provides backup electrical and pneumatic
37. The APU provides backup electrical and pneumatic (air conditioning and/or wing anti-icing, eng starting) power up to:
a) The aircraft certified flight envelope.
b) ft and ft respectively.
c) ft..

39. 38. In case of APU fire, the ground operation safety device:
a) Shuts down the APU, closes the fuel and isolation valves and discharges the APU fire bottle (after 10 sec’s), if a/c on the ground.
b) All of the above, both in flight or on the ground.
c) There is no APU ground operation safety device.

40. 39. Fuel supply for the APU:
a) Is normally from left wing tanks. A centrifugal low press fuel pump located on the cross-feed line will operate is fuel pressure is below 22 psi (pushbutton switch in AUTO).
b) Flows by gravity in event of total electrical power loss.
c) a) and b) are correct.

41. 40. The APU starter duty cycle on the ground:
a) Allows five start attempts separated by one min cooling. After the 5th one hour cooling must be allowed for.
b) Allows five start attempts within any one hour period.
c) Allows three start attempts separated by one min cooling. After the 3rd one hour cooling must be allowed for.

42. 41. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) :
a) Provides emergency hydraulic and electric power in case of both engines flame out, as long as airspeed is at or above 140kts.
b) Can be deployed throughout the whole flight envelope, and pressurizes the yellow hyd. system.
c) a) and b) are correct.

43. 42. The amber AIR lights on the HYD overhead panel indicate:
a) Presence or air contaminating the hyd fluid reservoir.
b) That the bleed air pressurization of the reservoir is low.
c) Temperature of the bleed air is to high

44. 43. The HYD reservoir quantity indicators have two. arcs
43. The HYD reservoir quantity indicators have two arcs. They indicate:
a) The upper small arc indicates normal quantity range on the ground for a pneumatically pressurized, hydraulically depressurized system.
b) The lower arc indicates normal usable range of hyd fluid.
c) a) and b) are correct.

45. 44. The VHF radio #1 is electrically supplied by:
a) AC bus 2
b) AC EMERG. Bus.
c) DC ESS bus.

46. 45. The Audio Control Panels allows:
a) Transmitting on the system whose Transmission pushbutton switch is depressed (only one allowed at a time).
b) Receiving on any system whose Reception Knob is depressed (and with volume adjusted).
c) a) and b) are correct.

47. 46. The Wing Anti Ice system:
a) Operates with bleed air from the engines or APU and heats the entire span of the leading edge.
b) On the ground operates only for 10 sec’s for the purpose of testing (longer time could damage the slats due excessive heat).
c) Is controlled by two anti ice WING SUPPLY pushbutton switches, each one controlling its respective NORM or ALTN valves (as selected).

48. 47. The Engine Anti Ice system:
a) Is independent from the pneumatic system, so it will operate even if its respective Eng Bleed is OFF.
b) Operates via the electrically controlled ENG 1 or 2 anti ice valves which will open in case of electric power loss.
c) a) and b) are correct.

49. 48. In the Probe Heat system :
a) The TAT probe is only heated in flight.
b) Failure of either the Case or Vane heating is indicated to the crew by the ALPHA amber light (Alpha probes).
c) The level of heating power for the Pitot tube and Static ports increases when the aircraft is in the air.

50. 49. After a Landing Gear gravity extension, the
49. After a Landing Gear gravity extension, the position indicators will show:
a) Three amber DOOR lights and three green locked gear symbols.
b) Three amber DOOR lights, three red UNLK lights and three green locked gear symbols.
c) Three green locked gear symbols.

51. 50. The nose wheel steering:
a) Uses Green Hyd pressure with Yellow Hyd as backup (controlled via the Brakes/Anti- skid) selector.
b) Is lost when Green Hyd is not available, but aircraft guidance is still possible by means of differential braking (on ALTN brake sys.).
c) Is controlled solely by either CM1 or CM2 steering hand wheels.

52. 51. With the BRAKES/Anti-SKID selector switch in ALTN/ON position:
a) Anti Skid is operative, the eight normal servo valves controlling Yellow Hyd pressure to the brakes.
b) Anti Skid is operative, the four alternate servo valves controlling Green Hyd pressure to the brakes.
c) Anti Skid is operative, the four alternate servo valves controlling Yellow Hyd pressure to the brakes.

53. 52. The AUTOBRAKE system:
a) Will only arm if Green Hyd pressure is available and Normal Brakes are selected (among other conditions).
b) Will gradually apply pressure to the brakes 8 sec after spoiler deployment order (if LO is selected).
c) a) and b) are correct..

54. 53. The Brake Release Indicator, on ECAM Wheel page:
a) Indicates release signal only with aircraft on the ground.
b) In flight indicates that Anti Skid is valid. On the ground appears and disappears depending on actual Anti Skid signals.
c) Turns amber if respective brake temp is above 300ºC.

55. 54. GEN 1, GEN 2 and the APU GEN are:
a) Identical, each rated at 90KVA and VAC/400Hz and anyone alone is capable of supplying the entire aircraft needs (with the exception of main galley).
b) Controlled by dedicated GCU’s which regulate the generator output and its connection/disconnection from the electric network as well as protecting it against faults.
c) a) and b) are correct.

56. 55. The AC ESS BUS:
a) Is normally supplied by AC BUS 2.
b) Can be supplied by the AC EMER BUS.
c) In case of Dual Override Supply is supplied by GEN1 with GEN2 in standby.

57. 56. The IDG disconnection pushbutton switch:
a) Is guarded and should not be pressed for more than 3sec to avoid damaging the disconnection mechanism.
b) Can be used at any engine rotation speed to disconnect the IDG.
c) Illuminates its integral FAULT light when IDG oil press is low.

58. 57. The AC EMER ON INV light:
a) Is blue and is normally on (AC EMER BUS is powered).
b) When on, indicates that the AC EMER BUS is not being supplied by the AC ESS BUS, but by the emergency inverter.
c) Is amber and is normally off (as other amber lights).

59. 58. The GEN HI light on the Galley pushbutton switch:
a) Illuminates if any GEN load indicator is over the white arc for more than 15 sec.
b) Illuminates on the ground and if APU GEN is the only source, the switch will trip out to shed galley power.
c) a) and b) are correct.

60. 59. The normal DC power supply is:
a) By the three 25A/h batteries.
b) By the DC part of the main generators.
c) By three TR’s.

61. b) The Hot Battery Busses are not powered.
60. With all Battery switches in the OFF position and no other electrical power source connected:
a) Some equipment (e.g.: fire extinguisher squibs, clocks, IRS1) is still powered.
b) The Hot Battery Busses are not powered.
c) The Refueling System is inoperative.

62. 61. The DC BUS TIE contactor automatically opens:
a) If both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are OFF or if reverse current is detected from the DC ESS BUS to the DC NORM BUS.
b) With LAND mode armed on the FCU and both AP’s engaged (segregation of electrical sources for reliability).
c) a) and b) are correct.

63. 62. In case of DC NORM BUS loss, pressing the LAND RECOVERY switch:
a) Connects power from the AC 1 and AC 2 busses to several systems required for landing.
b) Connects power from the AC EMER, AC ESS and DC ESS busses to several systems required for landing.
C) It’s a QRH item accomplished by recall on the DC NORM BUS OFF procedure

64. 63. The SBY GEN operation (starting and feeding):
a) Requires yellow Hyd power.
b) Is confirmed by the OVRD light illuminated.
c) Is confirmed by the AC EMER ON INV and DC ESS ON BAT lights extinguished and by FUEL X-FEED flow bar in-line

65. 64. When in flight and no generator is available:
a) This condition is very unlikely and therefore is not accounted.
b) The emergency procedure FLIGHT ON BAT ONLY must be followed.
c) The batteries supply the whole of the AC EMER, AC ESS and DC ESS busses.

66. 65. On the ground, during a stopover, IRS fast
65. On the ground, during a stopover, IRS fast alignment is accomplished by:
a) Turning the MSU selector to ATT, inserting the actual coordinates and then selecting NAV again.
b) Turning the MSU selector to OFF for seconds, then back to NAV and then inserting the actual coordinates.
c) Turning the MSU selector to OFF for a minimum of 2 and a max of 7 seconds, then back to NAV and then inserting the actual coordinates.

67. 66. An IRS # 2 fault is indicated by:
a) IRS WARN on the respective MSU, HDG flag on VOR/RMI #2, red HDG on ND #2 and red ATT on PFD #2.
b) IVS flag on VSI #2 and HDG flag on ADF/RMI #2.
c) a) and b) are correct.

68. 67. To manually set a VOR frequency and course on VOR #1:
a) Rotate the respective knobs on the VOR/DME control panel.
b) First check that the VOR/NAV/ILS switch is in VOR position, then do as in a) above.
c) Not possible, VOR tuning is done by the FMS.

69. 68. The ILS system on the A-310 is comprised by:
a) One receiver, one control panel and one set of antennas.
b) Two receivers, one control panel and two sets of antennas.
c) Two receivers, one control panel and one set of antennas.

70. 69. With both VOR/NAV/ILS switches in ILS position, ILS # 1:
a) Is powered by AC BUS 2 and displays information on PFD #1 and ND # 2.
b) Is powered by AC BUS 1 and displays information on PFD #1 and ND # 2.
c) Is powered by AC EMER BUS and displays information on PFD #1 and ND # 2.

71. 70. Both ADF bearing indications:
a) Are continuously displayed on Capt’s and F/O’s ADF/RMI.
b) Are available on ND if ARC or ROSE is selected.
c) a) and b) are correct.

72. 71. Selecting the APU bleed switch to ON when both
71. Selecting the APU bleed switch to ON when both APU and Engines are running and both ENG Bleed Valves pushbutton switches are in AUTO:
a) Should not be done, it will mix bleed air from different sources.
b) Will result in APU bleed valve closing because of reverse flow.
c) Will result in both ENG bleed valves closing

73. 72. The Air Bleed X-FEED Valve Position pushbutton switch:
a) Has no effect on valve position if the X- FEED Mode pushbutton switch is pressed- in (AUTO position).
b) Has a flow bar indication which is valid in MAN or AUTO Mode.
c) a) and b) are correct.

74. 73. A Bleed Valve LEAK Light will:
a) Be accompanied by ECAM activation.
b) Be accompanied by ECAM activation and the associated valve will close automatically.
c) Not activate the ECAM.

75. 74 The Engine Ground Idle:
a) Only occurs on ground.
b) Is possible only with reversers stowed and: either the aircraft is on the ground, or, slats are not extended and ENG Anti Ice is OFF.
c) Is possible during descent if on a 2 Pack/1Bleed configuration.

76. 75. The Engine Oil Pressure Indication on ECAM ENGINE Page:
a) Flashes if pressure indication is above 90 psi or below 16 psi.
b) Becomes red if pressure indication is lower than 9,5 psi.
c) a) and b) are correct.

77. 76. The Variable Stator Vane system (VSV):
a) Provides optimum Compressor efficiency at low engine speeds.
b) There is no such system in the CF6-80C2 engines.
c) Is controlled by the Main Engine Control (MEC).

78. 77. The Thrust Reverser system:
a) Deflects air from the Fan and is pneumatically operated.
b) Deflects air from the Fan and is hydraulically operated.
c) Has only one safety feature to prevent un- commanded deployment.

79. 78. The REV lights (green):
a) Come on during reverser deployment when the translating sleeves are at 0,5 in from the deployed position.
b) During deployment, come on only after the REV UNLK amber lights are out.
c) a) and b) are correct.

80. 79. Maximum N1 and N2 rotation are respectively:
a) 100% and 100%
b) 117,5% and 112,5%
c) 115% and 112,5%

81. 80. Engine EGT Limits for T/O, Max Continuous and
80. Engine EGT Limits for T/O, Max Continuous and during start (unlimited) are respectively:
a) 960ºC; 925ºC and 750ºC
b) 950ºC; 925ºC and 870ºC
c) 925ºC; 890ºC and 835ºC

82. 81. The Engine Starter duty cycle and cooling times are:
a) 5 min maximum continuous with a 2,5 min cooling after.
b) A 10 min cooling is required after two consecutive 5 min cycles.
c) a) and b) are correct.

83. 82 In case of ENG TRIM (PMC) inoperative, for takeoff :
a) Use ATS levers OFF.
b) Use ATS levers armed but no Auto-throttle mode engaged (MAN THR amber on FMA)
c) Use normal procedure.

84. 83. The Time Limit for max Takeoff and max Go
83. The Time Limit for max Takeoff and max Go Around thrust setting is:
a) 5 min in normal conditions
b) 10 min in case of engine failure.
c) a) and b) are correct.

85. 84. The Passenger Oxygen System:
a) Is comprised of chemical generators which will provide approximately 10 minutes of oxygen. The masks will automatically dropout at ft (+/- 500ft) cabin alt.
b) Is comprised of chemical generators which will provide approximately 15 minutes of oxygen. The masks will automatically dropout at ft (+0/- 500ft) cabin alt.
c) Is comprised of oxygen cylinders which will provide approximately 15 minutes of oxygen. The masks will automatically dropout at ft (+/- 500ft) cabin alt.

86. 85. The ENG FIRE light (integral in the FIRE Handle) :
a) Comes on red if the respective fire warning is activated, regardless of fire handle position, and will only go off when the temp detected by the loops drops below the warning threshold.
b) Comes on red if the respective fire warning is activated, and if the fire handle is in the IN position, and will only go off when the temp detected by the loops drops below the warning threshold.
c) Comes on red if the respective fire warning is activated, regardless of fire handle position, and will go off when both DISCH lights come on amber (after bottle discharge).

87. 86. Fire protection for the cargo compartments is provided by:
a) A total of ten smoke detectors and four extinguisher bottles.
b) A total of ten smoke detectors and two extinguisher bottles.
c) Three dual loop heat sensing units (one on each compartment) and four extinguisher bottles (two for fwd cargo and two for both aft and bulk).

88. 87. The Elevators:
a) Are actuated by the three hydraulic systems.
b) Are coupled together to prevent asymmetric deflection except during takeoff (from 30kts to 195kts they are uncoupled).
c) a) and b) are correct.

89. 88. The Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer:
a) Is operated by three independent motors (green, yellow and blue hyd), has mechanical stops at 3º nose down and 14º nose up and can be controlled manually (trim wheel or trim switches) or automatically (FAC or AP).
b) Is operated by two independent motors (green and yellow hydraulic systems), has mechanical stops at 3º nose down and 14º nose up and can be controlled manually (trim wheel or trim switches) or automatically (FAC or AP).
c) Is operated by two independent motors (green and yellow hydraulic systems), has mechanical stops at 3º nose up and 14º nose down and can be controlled manually (trim wheel or trim switches) or automatically (FAC or AP).

90. 89. The Rudder Trim:
a) Is operated by the three Hydraulic Systems.
b) Is operated by an electric motor and should be used in cruise to achieve a Zero Control Wheel deflection (resulting rudder trim deflection should not exceed 1,5 units NOSE R or L).
c) Has its maximum travel decreased by one Rudder Travel Limiting System, so that at VMO the maximum travel is about +/ º.

91. 90. The FLAPS FAULT light on the overhead panel:
a) When SYS 1 (or SYS 2 ) are illuminated to indicate a fault in the respective system, the flaps stop moving until a reset is made.
b) When SYS 1 (or SYS 2 ) are illuminated to indicate a fault in the respective system, the flaps will operate on the remaining system (at half the speed).
c) Both illuminated means system is locked out, recovery is not possible in flight.
d) a) and b) are correct

92. d) The Krueger not retracted have no speed limit.
91. With KRUEGER Light illuminated after Slats/Flaps retraction in flight:
a) The Krueger will not extend for approach, VREF corrections apply.
b) The Krueger not retracted maximum speed is 300kts/M 0.65.
c) The Krueger not retracted maximum speed is 285kts/M 0.78.
d) The Krueger not retracted have no speed limit.

93. 92. You are flying in cruise at FL330, M 0. 80 with the. AP 2 in CMD
92. You are flying in cruise at FL330, M 0.80 with the AP 2 in CMD. Suddenly you press both rocking levers (electric pitch trim) for a nose input. What will happen?
a) The Autopilot will disconnect.
b) The Autopilot will revert to Basic Modes.
c) Nothing. But you shouldn’t play with it.
d) The A/P will disconnect after 10 sec.

94. 93. The Speed brake / Ground spoiler lever:
a) When in the ARMED position (red collar in view) cannot be pulled aft to deploy the Speed brakes.
b) Will move to reflect movement of the ground spoilers when they extend automatically after landing (ARMED for landing).
c) a) and b) are correct.
d) The Auto Speed Brake function is deactivated.

95. b) FMC: Select speed, selected heading, selected altitude.
94. On the EFIS, which of the following systems provide the associated information to the SGU’s :
a) FCC: AP modes, FD bars, Landing Capability. FAC: Vss, Vls, “F” “S” and Green Dot Speeds, Vmax and Speed Trend.
b) FMC: Select speed, selected heading, selected altitude.
c) FWC: Radio height , Height < DH warning. TCC: ATS modes.
d) FAC: Select speed and selected heading

96. 95. An ADC #1fault will result in:
a) ECAM activation with a single chime aural.
b) Flags on Capt’s PFD, VSI and Altimeter.
c) a) and b) are correct.
d) PFD 1 and NAV 1 lost

97. 96. CM1 PFD and SGU #1 are powered by (respectively):
a) AC BUS 1 and DC NORM BUS.
b) AC EMER BUS and AC EMER BUS.
c) AC EMER BUS and AC BUS 1.
d) DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2.

98. 97. The ECAM Warning Inhibition:
a) Inhibits all warnings in critical phases of flight.
b) A magenta “TO INHIB” is displayed on the upper left corner of ECAM memo page only if any warning is being inhibited.
c) If a warning is still being inhibited 60 secs after the malfunction has occurred, the inhibition is cancelled.
d) There are no Warning inhibition.

99. 98. Following are some conditions associated with. some aural warnings
98. Following are some conditions associated with some aural warnings. Choose the correct association.
a) ENG FIRE=CRC; TO configuration=CRC; STALL warning=CRC.
b) OVERSPEED=Clacker; STALL Warning= “Cricket”+Stickshaker.
c) APU FIRE=CRC; OVERSPEED=CRC; Autopilot Disconnect = Cavalry Charge; STALL Warning=”Cricket”+Stickshaker.
d) ”Cricket”+Stickshaker is the same as CRC.

100. 99. Flight-Phase related ECAM pages, Choose the correct association:
a) When START Selector is selected back to OFF after both engines have been started => WHEEL page.
b) After T.O., when Slats have been retracted or when both throttles are retarded below T.O. power => CRUISE page.
c) a) and b) are correct.
d) In flight the system is always inhibited.

101. 100. Your flight is PUJ/LIS, EET 08h15, ETOPS 180
100. Your flight is PUJ/LIS, EET 08h15, ETOPS min, with a crew of 2/6.During the cockpit preparation the Oxygen pressure shows 600 psi. OAT 30ºC, cockpit & cabin temp 28ºc.
a) Oxygen is not sufficient for the flight, call maintenance.
b) Request a flight plan for ETOPS 120 min.
c) Oxygen is sufficient.
d) Oxygen is not sufficient, but it can be complemented by portable Oxygen bottles.