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Midterm Exam EC Fall
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Question 1 (a) BOP<0 outflow of gold MS
BOP>0 inflow of gold MS (b) President Nixon closed the gold window (1971) (c) UK, Denmark and Sweden
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Question 1 (cont’d) (d) (1) Argentine, Hong Kong, Estonia, Lithuania, Ecuador, Panama,… (2) UK, Switzerland, Japan,… (3) Chile, Malaysia,…
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Question 1. (cont’d) (e) The country with a currency board still has its currency, while the dollarized country does not. Currency boards: Argentine, Hong Kong Dollarization: Ecuador, Panama
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Question 2 (a) Since F$/SF,180 = > E$/SF = .6049, the the 6-month forward SF is at a premium.
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Question 2 (cont’d) (b) (i) (the return on domestic borrowing)
(ii) (the return on covered foreign lending) = (1/E$/SF) x (1 + iSF/2 ) X F$/SF,180 = (.6098/.6049) x =
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Question 2 (cont’d) (b) (iii) There is an arbitrage profit opportunity, i.e. you can make positive profits at no cost and with no risk. Borrow $1 from a US bank and convert it into SF Deposit this amount with a Swiss bank, which will earn SF six months from today. Sell this amount of SF forward at SF per dollar, which amounts to $ Subtracting $1.025, the amount you have to pay back, you end up with $ per each dollar you borrow.
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Question 2 (cont’d) (c) 1.025 = (.6098/.6049) x (1 + iSF/2 ) = 1.0168
1 + iSF/2 = x (.6049/.6098) = So, iSF should be 3.4 %.
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Question 3 (a) The German firm could borrow in the US$ CP market and swap its dollar obligation into DM, that is by buying US$ forward to match its future CP payments (principal plus interest) and selling US$ spot.
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Question 3 (cont’d) (b) The German firm can secure the rate: 1 + iDM/4 = (S/F) x (1 + i$/4). Or, 1 + iDM/4 = (0.60/0.58) x ( /4), which implies that iDM is 22.07%.
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