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More Advanced Mortgage Math
Real Estate Finance, Spring, 2017
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Overview Risks in residential and commercial mortgages
Yield degradation (commercial) Hazard rate Prepayments? Lender Restrictions Pricing pools of mortgages Sensitivity of pools to interest rates Tranching: IO/PO Strips and Creating AAA
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Major Risks for Pricing Pools of Mortgages
Commercial: Default Default is bad because typically a borrower only defaults if some bad event has happened and the building is worth less than the mortgage Residential: Prepay Prepayment is bad because a borrower (should) only prepay if the stream of expected future payments under the current mortgage terms is worth more than the par value of the mortgage Note: borrowers often move, so prepayment also occurs randomly
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Language of Commercial Mortgage Default
Equation Contractual Yield – Yield Degradation (credit losses) = Realized Yield Credit losses: Shortfalls to lender as a result of default and foreclosure Yield Degradation: Lender’s loss measured as a multi-period lifetime return on the original investment (IRR impact)
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Numerical Example $100 loan 3 years, annual payments in arrears
10% interest rate Interest only loan Contract Yield to Maturity = 10.00%
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Numerical Example Continued
Now suppose loan defaults in year 3 Bank takes property and sells it in foreclosure Bank only gets 70% of outstanding balance: $77 = 0.70*$110 credit losses: $33 recovery rate: 70% loss severity: 30% Realized Cash Flows imply an IRR of -1.12% (Use cash flow buttons) Yield degradation = 11.12% = – (-1.12%)
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Numerical Example Continued
Suppose instead the loan defaults in year 2 bank gets 70% of outstanding balance: $77 = 0.70*$110 (why is outstanding balance $110 in year 2 ???) Realized Cash Flows imply an IRR of -7.11% Yield degradation = 17.11% = – (-7.11%) All else equal, the earlier defaults occur the more costly they are
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On Yield Degradation In general, Expected Return = Contract Yield – (Pr. Default)*Yield degradation Suppose 10% chance of default in year 3 With a 70% recovery rate in such a default No other chance of any other default Expected return:
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More on Yield Degradation
Assume 10% chance of default in year 2 with a 70% conditional recovery 10% chance of default in year 3 with a 70% conditional recovery 80% chance of no default Note these are “unconditional probabilities” Do not depend on any pre-conditioning event Describe mutually exclusive and exhaustive set of possibilities for the mortgage Probabilities sum to 100%
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In the real world … More realistic analysis uses hazard functions
Hazard functions specify the probability of default at each point given default has not already occurred Note probability of default exactly in year 2 = 99% * 2% = 1.98% Year Hazard Prob Loan is Still Active at Year End 1 1% 99% = (100% - 1%) 2 2% 97% = (100% - 2%) * 99% 3 3% 94.1% = (100% - 3%) * 97%
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Cumulative Default Probability
What is the probability a loan defaults by end of year 3? = Probability of default in year 1 = 1% + Probability of default in year 2 = 99% * 2% = 1.98% + Probability of default in year 3 = 97% * 3% = 2.91% = 5.91% The probability a loan does not default = 100% % = 94.1%
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Example Question You issue a 3-year 10% mortgage assuming this about default: What is the expected return? Year Hazard Recovery Rate 1 1% 80% 2 2% 70% 3 3%
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Lender Restrictions Lenders put into place restrictions or boundaries to limit the possibility of default. These limits keep interest rates low. The three most common are Loan-to-value ratio (LTV) = loan amount divided by property value Debt-service coverage ratio (DCR) = NOI divided by Debt Service (DS) DS includes interest and principal. Typically DCR must be at least 1.2 Related: Break Even Ratio (BER) BER = (DS + Operating Expenses) / Potential Gross Income A typical requirement is that BER < 85% or Mkt Avg Occupancy less 5% buffer In a multi-year proforma, lenders want to see positive net cash in every year
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Lender Underwriting Problem 1
Suppose 10-year yields in the bond market are 7.00% effective annual rate, and the market for commercial mortgage loans requires a contract yield risk premium of 175 basis points at an annual rate. If a property has an annual net operating income (NOI) of $400,000 and the underwriting criteria require a debt coverage ratio (DCR) of at least 130%, then what is the maximum loan that can be offered assuming a 15-year amortization rate and annual payments on the mortgage? Notice everything here is annual to make the problem a bit easier; remember to set P/Y = 1 on your calculator.
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Lender Underwriting Problem 1
Suppose 10-year yields in the bond market are 7.00% effective annual rate, and the market for commercial mortgage loans requires a contract yield risk premium of 175 basis points at an annual rate. If a property has an annual net operating income (NOI) of $400,000 and the underwriting criteria require a debt coverage ratio (DCR) of at least 130%, then what is the maximum loan that can be offered assuming a 15-year amortization rate and annual payments on the mortgage? The contract interest rate on the mortgage must be 8.75% = 7.0% % Max pmt determined by DCR 1.3 = $400,000/x, x = $307, Max loan determined N=15, I=8.75, PMT=307,692.30, FV=0, PV = -$2,517,243.94
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Lender Underwriting Problem 2
On your proforma, you purchase a property on 1/1/2017 for $1,000,000 with NOI accruing on 12/31/2017 of $40,000 and then immediately sell the building for $1,050,000. A lender has offered you a thirty-year fixed rate mortgage with annual payments at 4.5%. The maximum debt service coverage ratio the lender will allow is What is the maximum LTV of the property?
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Lender Underwriting Problem 2
On your proforma, you purchase a property on 1/1/2017 for $1,000,000 with NOI accruing on 12/31/2017 of $40,000 and then immediately sell the building for $1,050,000. A lender has offered you a thirty-year fixed rate mortgage with annual payments at 4.5%. The maximum debt service coverage ratio the lender will allow is What is the maximum LTV of the property? DCR = NOI/debt service = $40,000/x, x = $30, The maximum size mortgage is N = 30, I/YR = 4.5, PMT = $30,769.23, PV = $501, The LTV = $501, / $1,000,000 =
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Why is prepayment bad? Suppose a lender issues an interest only mortgage for $100 at 10% for 3 years. The sequence of expected payments is: Now suppose that interest rates drop to 8%. This sequence of cash flows from the mortgage is worth
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Why is prepayment bad? (continued)
Now consider cash a mortgage with a prepayment in year 2. The cash flows are only worth The mortgage is worth if no prepayment occurs if a prepayment occurs Suppose the probability is 50%. The price will be If a prepayment occurs, the purchaser will take a loss.
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Pools Rather than talk about an expected return on an individual mortgage, it makes sense to talk about expected return on a pool. A coin flip is either heads or tails. It is not 50% heads. Analogously, a mortgage will either default or prepay or it will not. However, 50% of a large pool of coins all flipped at once will be heads. And x% of a pool or mortgages can be counted on to default or prepay.
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Pools Assume you buy a pool of 100 residential mortgages.
Each mortgage is interest only for $100 at 10% for 3 years. The prepayment hazard rate is 10% in year 1 and 20% in year 2. Secondary market participants discount these cash flows at 8% What is the pool worth?
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Pools Here are the cash flows from the pool
The pool is worth $ per mortgage Year No Prepay Prepay Payment # Cash Total Cash 1 $10 90 $900 $110 10 $1,100 $2,000 2 72 $720 18 $1,980 $2,700 3 $7,920
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Sensitivity of Pools to Interest Rates:
How pools change in value when interest rates change depends on the relationship of prepayments with interest rates Illustrative Example: Assume you buy a pool of 100 residential mortgages. Each mortgage is interest only for $100 at 10% for 3 years. Secondary market participants discount these cash flows at 6% The prepayment hazard rate is 10% in year 1 and 20% in year 2. What is the pool worth? Now assume: The prepayment hazard rate jumps to 15% in year 1 and stays at 20% in year 2.
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Example Relationship of Interest Rates and Prepay
No change in prepay behavior: Change in prepay behavior Year No Prepay Prepay Payment # Cash Total Cash 1 $10 $110 2 3 Year No Prepay Prepay Payment # Cash Total Cash 1 $10 $110 2 3
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Tranching Tranche is French for “slice.”
Tranching is slicing up cash flows from a pool. The example you know is debt vs equity. In a pool of debt instruments, cash flows can still be sliced up 2 Examples Principal vs. Interest Strips (PO vs IO) Prioritization of cash flows (AAA vs residual)
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Example 1: PO vs IO strips
Consider a pool of year fixed rate mortgages with par value of $100,000, a coupon of 5%, and annual year-end payments Assume that 10% of the pool pre-pays in year 1 and the other 90% pre-pays in year 2 How much are investors willing to pay for the PO and IO strips?
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Example 1 – PO and IO strips continued
Step 1: Compute annual payments P/YR = 1 N = 30, I/YR = 5, PV = -$100,000, FV = 0 PMT =?= $6, Step 2: Compute int. and prin. paid and payoff amount per loan Year 1, no prepay: PMT = $6, INT = $5,000, PRINC = $1, , OLB = $98, Year 1, prepay: INT = $5,000, PRINC = $100,000 Year 2 (everyone remaining prepays): INT = $4, = 0.05 * OLB from year 1 PRINC = $98,
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Example 1 – PO and IO strips continued
Step 3: compute table of payoffs of the pool The Value of the Pools is (set P/YR = 1 and I/YR = 5) IO Strip: CF0 = 0, CF1 = 500,000, CF2 = 443, NPV = $878, PO Strip: CF0 = 0, CF1 = 1,135,462.92, CF2 = 8,864, NPV = $9,121, IO Strip + PO Strip = $10m
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Example 1 – PO and IO strips continued
Suppose the pre-pay rate jumps to 20% in year 1! The Value of the Pools is (set P/YR = 1 and I/YR = 5) IO Strip: CF0 = 0, CF1 = 500,000, CF2 =393, NPV = $833, (this falls) PO Strip: CF0 = 0, CF1 = 2,120,411.49, CF2 =7,879, NPV = 9,166, $ (this rises) IO Strip + PO Strip = $10m
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Example 2: Prioritization of Cash Flows
Consider a pool of 100 commercial mortgages, each with one payment remaining to be made at the end of the year. The contractual payment is $105,000. If the mortgage defaults, the amount collected is only $73,500. There are 2 possible states of the world, each with a 50% chance Good Economy: 10% of the mortgages default Bad Economy: 30% of the mortgages default What is the maximum amount of bonds that can be sold as AAA?
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Example 2: Prioritization of Cash Flows Contd.
In the worst case scenario, $9,555,000 of cash is paid into the pool. This is the amount that can be sold as AAA Contractually, the residual (equity) gets $10,500,000 - $9,555,000 = $945,000 In expectation, the equity gets: 0.50*(10,185,000 – 9,555,000) *0 = $315,000 Upside $630K, Downside $0K
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