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Published byTeresa Flynn Modified over 6 years ago
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Q1 Find the PV of perpetuity, then discount into Year 0 terms
14, / (1.14)^2 = 76,947 π.πΌ.= 76,947 80,000 = .96
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Q2 Find the EAR that links the two SARβs
Quarterly rate = = EAR = β1= Monthly Rate = β1= πΊπ¨πΉ=ππ β .πππππ= .πππππ
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Q3 Simple Interest FV formula: πΉπ=ππ 1+πβπ πΉπ=4,000 1+.1β8 =7,200
7,200β4000=3,200
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Q4 Investment 1: NPV= β50, =4545 Investment 2: NPV= β30, =β909 Investment 3 : First try 50,000 into Investment 3 NPV = β50, β =1652 Investment 1 has higher NPV than 3), so invest 50,000 in 1) and the remaining 30,000 in 3)
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Q5 Find the PV of monthly perpetuity standing in Month 5 by converting SAR into EAR Monthly Rate = = EAR= β1=.20745 π π ππππ‘β5 = =3374 π· π½ π΄πππππ = ππππ π.ππππππ π =ππππ
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Q6 Internal rate of return s.t. : β600β π π 2 =0 Make: 1+π=π₯ β600 π₯ 2 β800π₯+1400=0 3 π₯ 2 +4π₯β7=0 Use quadratic formula X=1
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Q7 Equate the two cash flows: 1,000,000= 1000 π€πππππ¦ πππ‘π π€πππππ¦ πππ‘π= .001 πΈπ΄π
= β1= .0534
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Q8 Year 0 β 1 : 500 *(1.09)=545 Year 1 β 2 : (500+545) *(1.09)=1139.05
3 years from today: =2286
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Q9 π+1= 1+π 1+π π+1= =.8 r = -.2
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Q10 130,000=90,000 1+π 32 π=π πππππππ’ππ πππ‘π= SAR= r*2 = .0232
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Q11 90000=15000β 1β 1.14 βπ‘ .14 π‘= πππ 6.25 πππ 1.14 =14
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Q12 90,000 15,000 =6 years
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Q13 Use the annuity formula to find PV of withdrawals standing in year 17 (which is also balance you need at year 17) π π 17 = β 1β β23 Discount back to year 10 π·ππππ π π‘ ππππ10 β =π π 17 π·ππππ ππ‘= π π ^7 =477,791
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Q14a Equal deductions of principle: 600 over 6 years
600/6 =100 each year
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Q14b PV of payments should equal principle π₯ 1.15 4 + 2π₯ 1.15 7 =600
π₯ π₯ =600 Or do it manually (((600β1.15^4)-x)*1.15^3)-2x=0 X=453.3 2x=906.6
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