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CorePure2 Chapter 3 :: Methods in Calculus
Last modified: 9th August 2018
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Chapter Overview 1:: Improper Integrals 2:: Mean value of a function
In this chapter, we explore a variety of new techniques for integration, as well as how integration can be applied. 1:: Improper Integrals 2:: Mean value of a function βEvaluate 1 β 1 π₯ 2 ππ₯ or show that it is not convergent.β βFind the mean value of π π₯ = π₯ over the interval 2,6 .β 3:: Differentiating and integrating inverse trigonometric functions 4:: Integrating using partial fractions. βShow that π₯ π₯ 3 +9π₯ ππ₯=π΄ ln π₯ 2 π₯ π΅ arctan π₯ 3 +π β βShow that if π¦= arcsin π₯ , then ππ¦ ππ₯ = 1 1β π₯ 2 β
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Improper Integrals STARTER 1: Determine β π₯ 2 ππ₯ . Is there an issue? ? π¦ β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = β1 1 π₯ β2 ππ₯ = β π₯ β1 β1 1 = β 1 1 β β 1 β1 =β1β +1=β2 Whatβs odd is the we ended up with a negative value. But the whole graph is above the π₯ axis! The problem is related to integrating over a discontinuity, i.e. the function is not defined for the entire interval [β1,1], notably where π₯=0. We will see when this causes and issue and when it does not. We say the definite integral does not exist. π₯ β1 1 STARTER 2: Determine 1 β 1 π₯ 2 ππ₯ . Is there an issue? ? (Note: the below is seriously dodgy maths as weβre not allowed to use β in calculations β weβll look at the proper way to write this in a sec) β π₯ β1 1 β = β 1 β β β 1 1 =0+1=1 Although the graph is extending to infinity, the area is finite because the π¦ values converge towards 0. The result is therefore valid this time. This is an example of an improper integral and because the value converged, we say the definite integral exists. π¦ π₯ 1
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Improper Integrals STARTER 3: Determine π₯ ππ₯ . Is there an issue? ? π¦ π₯ ππ₯ = β1 1 π₯ β ππ₯ = 2 π₯ =2 1 β2 0 =2 This is similar to the second example. Although π¦ββ as π₯β0 (and not defined when π₯=0), the area is convergent and therefore finite. The result of 2 is therefore valid. π₯ 1 ! The integral π π π π₯ ππ₯ is improper if either: One or both of the limits is infinite π(π₯) is undefined at π₯=π, π₯=π are another point in the interval [π,π]. Weβve seen use of improper integrals with the normal distribution (Stats Year 2), which has the probability function: π π§ = 1 2π π π§ 2 2 The π§ table determines the probability up to a particular value of π§. So π π§ =π πβ€π§ = ββ π§ π π₯ ππ₯ . As the area under the whole graph is 1, the improper integral ββ β π π₯ ππ₯ =1 π(π§) π§
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Examples ! To find π β π π₯ ππ₯ , determine lim tββ π π‘ π π₯ ππ₯
As mentioned, we canβt use β in calculations directly. We can make use of the πππ function we saw in differentiation by first principles. Evaluate 1 β 1 π₯ 2 ππ₯ or show that it is not convergent. Evaluate 1 β 1 π₯ ππ₯ or show that it is not convergent. ? 1 β 1 π₯ ππ₯ = lim π‘ββ 1 π‘ 1 π₯ ππ₯ = lim π‘ββ ln π₯ 1 π‘ = lim π‘ββ ln π‘ β ln 1 But as π‘ββ, ln π‘ ββ so 1 β 1 π₯ ππ₯ does not converge. ? 1 β 1 π₯ 2 ππ₯ = lim π‘ββ 1 π‘ 1 π₯ 2 ππ₯ = lim π‘ββ β 1 π₯ 1 π‘ = lim π‘ββ β 1 π‘ +1 =1 So 1 β 1 π₯ 2 ππ₯ converges to 1. Just For Your Interest This can be used to prove that the βharmonic seriesβ π+ π π + π π + π π +β¦ is divergent. The areas of the below rectangles are 1Γ1, 1Γ 1 2 , 1Γ 1 3 and so on, i.e. their total area is the harmonic series. But the blue area 1 β 1 π₯ ππ₯ , which is smaller, is divergent. Therefore the harmonic series must also be divergent. π¦ π₯ 1 2 3 4
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When π(π₯) not defined for some value
We need to avoid values with the range [π,π] for which the expression is not defined. But just as we avoided β by considering the limit as π‘ββ, we can similarly find what the area converges to as π₯ tends towards the undefined value. Evaluate π₯ 2 ππ₯ or show that it is not convergent. Evaluate π₯ 4β π₯ 2 ππ₯ or show that it is not convergent. ? ? 1 π₯ 2 is not defined for 0 so consider the area as the lower limit β0. π₯ 2 ππ₯ = lim π‘β0 π‘ π₯ 2 ππ₯ = lim π‘β0 β 1 π₯ π‘ 1 = lim π‘β0 β1+ 1 π‘ As π‘β0, β1+ 1 π‘ ββ so π₯ 2 ππ₯ does not converge. 0 2 π₯ 4β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = 0 2 π₯ 4β π₯ 2 β ππ₯ Try π¦= 4β π₯ β ππ¦ ππ₯ =βπ₯ 4β π₯ 2 β 1 2 β΄ 0 2 π₯ 4β π₯ 2 β ππ₯ = lim π‘β2 0 π‘ π₯ 4β π₯ 2 β ππ₯ = lim π‘β2 β 4β π₯ π‘ = lim π‘β2 β 4β π‘ =2 So π₯ 4β π₯ 2 ππ₯ converges to 2. βConsider and scaleβ method Undefined when π₯=2
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When integrating between ββ and β
desired range of limits ββ β2 β1 1 2 3 4 5 +β 6 7 Suppose we want ββ β π(π₯) ππ₯. How could evaluate this? We could integrate for example between ββ and 0, and between 0 and +β, using limits as appropriate (but any finite value would work). That way we are only limiting towards one value at a time. ββ β π(π₯) ππ₯= lim π‘βββ π‘ 0 π π₯ ππ₯ + lim π‘β+β 0 π‘ π π₯ ππ₯ ? [Textbook] (a) Find π₯ π β π₯ 2 ππ₯ (b) Hence show that ββ β π₯ π β π₯ 2 ππ₯ converges and find its value. ββ β π₯ π β π₯ 2 ππ₯= ββ 0 π₯ π β π₯ 2 ππ₯+ 0 β π₯ π β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = lim π‘βββ β 1 2 π β π₯ 2 π‘ lim π‘ββ β 1 2 π β π₯ π‘ =β¦ =β =0 a ? Try π¦= π β π₯ 2 , then ππ¦ ππ₯ =β2π₯ π β π₯ 2 β΄ π₯ π β π₯ 2 ππ₯ =β 1 2 π β π₯ 2 +π b ?
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Exercise 3A Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 56-58
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The Mean Value of a Function
How would we find the mean of a set of values π¦ values π¦ 1 , π¦ 2 ,β¦, π¦ π ? So the question then is, can we extend this to the continuous world, with a function π¦=π(π₯), between π₯=π and π₯=π? π¦ 4 π¦ π¦ π π π¦ 2 π¦ 3 π¦ 1 ? π¦ = π¦ 1 + π¦ 2 +β¦+ π¦ π π continuous equivalent? Integration can be thought of as the continuous version of summation of the π¦ values. ? π¦ = π π π π₯ ππ₯ πβπ ? The width of the interval, πβπ, could (sort of) be thought of as the number of points in the interval on an infinitesimally small scale. ! The mean value of the function π¦=π(π₯) over the interval [π,π] is given by 1 πβπ π π π π₯ ππ₯ We write it as π¦ or π or π¦ π .
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Examples [Textbook] Find the mean value of π π₯ = π₯ over the interval 2,6 . [Textbook] π π₯ = 4 1+ π π₯ Show that the mean value of π(π₯) over the interval ln 2 , ln 6 is 4 ln ln 3 Use your answer to part a to find the mean value over the interval [ ln 2 , ln 6 ] of π π₯ +4. Use geometric considerations to write down the mean value of βπ(π₯) over the interval ln 2 , ln 6 ? π₯ ππ₯ = π₯ β 1 2 ππ₯ = π₯ = β 2 So mean value is β β2 = β 2 a ? Using substitution: Let π’= π π₯ , then ππ’ ππ₯ = π π₯ So ππ₯= 1 π π₯ ππ’= 1 π’ ππ’ When π₯= ln 2 β π’= π ln 2 =2 When π₯= ln 6 β π’=6 ln 2 ln π π₯ ππ₯= π’ Γ 1 π’ ππ’ = π’ 1+π’ ππ’ By splitting into partial fractions, we eventually obtain 4 ln Thus mean value is 4 ln ln 6 β ln 2 = 4 ln ln 3 This is a bit like a βcodingβ question. If the values all increase by 4, so does the mean. 4 ln ln 3 +4 Similarly if we negate all the values, we would also negate the mean. β 4 ln ln 3 b ? c ?
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Just for your interestβ¦
Why does the gradient of the line segment between the first and last point of a function give you the average gradient of the function? When helping some GCSE students revise, I came across this question: π,π π π,π π [Edexcel Original SAMs Paper 3H Q14bi] The graph gives information about the variation in the temperature, inΒ Β°πΆ, of an amount of water that is allowed to cool fromΒ 80Β°πΆ. Work out the average rate of decrease of the temperature of the water betweenΒ π‘=0Β andΒ π‘=800. If π¦=π(π‘) (where π‘ is the time and π¦ the temperature), then the average rate of change is π β² π‘ . Suppose our first and last points were (π,π π ) and π,π π Using our mean function formula: π β² π‘ = π π π β² π‘ ππ‘ πβπ = π π‘ π π πβπ = π π βπ π πβπ But if we similarly find the gradient between the first and last points. π= Ξπ¦ Ξπ₯ = π π βπ π πβπ β‘ To find the βaverage gradientβ, the solution was to simply find the gradient of the straight line segment between the first point (when π‘=0) and last point (when π‘=800), as the average gradient is the overall change in temperature over the overall time elapsed. I naturally wondered if I could prove it more formallyβ¦ ME-WOW!
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Exercise 3B Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 61-62
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Differentiating inverse trigonometric functions
Show that if π¦= arcsin π₯ , then ππ¦ ππ₯ = 1 1β π₯ 2 ? π= ππ«ππ¬π’π§ π π= π¬π’π§ π π
π π
π = ππ¨π¬ π π
π π
π = π ππ¨π¬ π We know that ππ π π π+ππ π π πβ‘π = π πβ π¬π’π§ π π = π πβ π π Remember that weβre trying to turn cos π¦ into an expression in terms of π₯; we have to use π₯= sin π¦ in some way. You then might think βOh, I know an identity that relates cos π¦ and sin π¦ !β ! π ππ₯ arcsin π₯ = 1 1β π₯ π ππ₯ arccos π₯ =β 1 1β π₯ π ππ₯ arctan π₯ = 1 1+ π₯ 2 Given that π¦= arcsin π₯ 2 find ππ¦ ππ₯ ? Using the chain rule: ππ¦ ππ₯ = 1 1β π₯ Γ2π₯ = 2π₯ 1β π₯ 4 (Teacher Note: Those with the original print versions of the new A Level Pure Year 2 textbooks will actually find this material there: it has since been moved to this module)
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Test Your Understanding
[Textbook] Given that π¦= arctan 1βπ₯ 1+π₯ , find ππ¦ ππ₯ Given that π¦= arcsec 2π₯ , show that π¦= 1 π₯ 4 π₯ 2 β1 ? (Letβs use the βfullβ Chain Rule method this time) Let π= πβπ π+π π
π π
π =β¦=β π π+π π π= ππ«ππππ§ π β΄ π
π π
π = π π+ π π By the Chain Rule: π
π π
π = π
π π
π Γ π
π π
π = π π+ π π Γ β π π+π π =β¦ =β π π+ π π ? sec π¦ =2π₯ sec π¦ tan π¦ ππ¦ ππ₯ =2 ππ¦ ππ₯ = 2 sec π¦ tan π¦ ππ¦ ππ₯ = 2 sec π¦ sec 2 π¦ β1 ππ¦ ππ₯ = 2 2π₯ 4 π₯ 2 β1 = 1 π₯ 4 π₯ 2 β1
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Exercise 3C Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 61-62
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Integrating with inverse trigonometric functions
Use an appropriate substitution to show that π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arctan π₯ +πΆ ? Fro Hint: Think what value of π₯ would make 1+ π₯ 2 nicely simplify. π₯= tan π ? ππ₯ ππ = sec 2 π β ππ₯= sec 2 π ππ π₯ 2 ππ₯ = tan 2 π sec 2 π ππ = 1 ππ =π+πΆ = arctan π₯ +πΆ
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Dealing with 1/( π 2 β π₯ 2 ) , 1/ π 2 β π₯ 2 , β¦.
From earlier: 1 1β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arcsin π₯ +πΆ, π₯ <π π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arctan π₯ +πΆ Show that π 2 β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arcsin π₯ π +π where π is a positive constant and π₯ <π. ? 1 π 2 β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = π 2 1β π₯ 2 π ππ₯ = 1 π 1β π₯ 2 π 2 ππ₯ = = 1 π β π₯ π ππ₯ This looks like a standard result from above. Letting π’= π₯ π (note ππ’=ππ₯) = 1 π βπ’ ππ’ = arcsin (π’) +π = arcsin π₯ π +π
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Example ? [Textbook] Find 4 5+ π₯ 2 ππ₯
! Standard results: (in formula booklet) 1 π 2 β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arcsin π₯ π +πΆ, π₯ <π π 2 + π₯ 2 ππ₯ = 1 π arctan π₯ π +πΆ [Textbook] Find π₯ 2 ππ₯ ? 4 5+ π₯ 2 ππ₯ = π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arctan π₯ π
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Dealing with 1/( π 2 β π 2 π₯ 2 ) , β¦. ? ? Find 1 25+9 π₯ 2 ππ₯
Standard results: (in formula booklet) 1 π 2 β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arcsin π₯ π +πΆ, π₯ <π π 2 + π₯ 2 ππ₯ = 1 π arctan π₯ π +πΆ Find π₯ 2 ππ₯ Find β β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ ? = π₯ 2 ππ₯ = 1 9 Γ πππ‘ππ π₯ πΆ = arctan 3π₯ 5 +πΆ = β β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arcsin 2π₯ β = π 12 β β π 12 = π 6 ?
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Final example ? Find π₯+4 1β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯
Standard results: (in formula booklet) 1 π 2 β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = arcsin π₯ π +πΆ, π₯ <π π 2 + π₯ 2 ππ₯ = 1 π arctan π₯ π +πΆ Fro Tip: If you have multiple terms being added/subtracted in the numerator, split up the fraction. Find π₯+4 1β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ ? π₯+4 1β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ = π₯ 1β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ Deal with each in turn: π₯ 1β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ = π₯ 1β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ = β4 π₯ 2 +π β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ = β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = β π₯ 2 ππ₯ =2 arcsin 2π₯ +π β΄ π₯+4 1β4 π₯ 2 ππ₯ = β4 π₯ arcsin 2π₯ +π π= 1 2
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Exercise 3D Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 67-69
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Solving using partial fractions
We have already seen in Pure Year 2 how we can use partial fractions to integrate. We can use this to further expand our repertoire of integration techniques for expressions of the form 1 π 2 Β± π₯ 2 and π 2 Β± π₯ 2 Prove that π 2 β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = 1 2π ln π+π₯ πβπ₯ +π ? 1 π 2 β π₯ 2 β‘ 1 π+π₯ πβπ₯ β‘ π΄ π+π₯ + π΅ πβπ₯ 1β‘π΄ πβπ₯ +π΅(π+π₯) If π₯=π β 1=2ππ΅ β π΅= 1 2π If π₯=βπ β 1=2ππ΄ β π΄= 1 2π β΄ π 2 β π₯ 2 ππ₯ = 1 2π π+π₯ + 1 πβπ₯ ππ₯ = 1 2π ln π+π₯ β ln πβπ₯ = 1 2π ln π+π₯ πβπ₯ +π
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Partial Fractions involving Quadratic Factors
When you write as partial fractions, ensure you have the most general possible non-top heavy fraction, i.e. the βorderβ (i.e. maximum power) of the numerator is one less than the denominator. 1 π₯( π₯ 2 +1) β‘ π΄ π₯ + π΅π₯+πΆ π₯ 2 +1 [Textbook] Show that π₯ π₯ 3 +9π₯ ππ₯=π΄ ln π₯ 2 π₯ π΅ arctan π₯ 3 +π , where π΄ and π΅ are constants to be found. ? 1+π₯ π₯ 3 +9π₯ ππ₯= 1+π₯ π₯ π₯ ππ₯= π΄ π₯ + π΅π₯+πΆ π₯ 2 +9 1+π₯β‘π΄ π₯ π₯ π΅π₯+πΆ β¦ π΄= 1 9 , π΅=β 1 9 , πΆ=1 1+π₯ π₯ 3 +9π₯ ππ₯= π₯ ππ₯ β π₯ π₯ ππ₯ π₯ ππ₯ = 1 9 ln π₯ β ln π₯ arctan π₯ 3 +π = ln π₯ 2 π₯ arctan π₯ 3 +π
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Test Your Understanding
If the fraction is top-heavy, youβll have a quotient. As per Pure Year 2, if the order of numerator and denominator is the same, youβll need an extra constant term. If the power is 1 greater in the numerator, youβll need a quotient of π΄π₯+π΅, and so on. 4 π₯ 2 +π₯ π₯ 2 +π₯ = 4 π₯ 2 +π₯ π₯ π₯+1 =π΄+ π΅ π₯ + πΆ π₯+1 [Textbook] (a) Express π₯ 4 +π₯ π₯ 4 +5 π₯ as partial fractions. (b) Hence find π₯ 4 +π₯ π₯ 4 +5 π₯ ππ₯. a ? π₯ 4 +π₯ π₯ 4 +5 π₯ 2 +6 =π΄+ π΅π₯+πΆ π₯ π·π₯+πΈ π₯ π΄=1, π΅=1, πΆ=4, π·=β1, πΈ=β9 π₯ 4 +π₯ π₯ 4 +5 π₯ 2 +6 =1+ π₯+4 π₯ 2 +2 β π₯+9 π₯ 2 +3 1+ π₯+4 π₯ 2 +2 β π₯+9 π₯ ππ₯ = 1+ π₯ π₯ π₯ 2 +2 β π₯ π₯ 2 +3 β 9 π₯ ππ₯ =β¦ =π₯ ln π₯ π₯ arctan π₯ β3 3 arctan π₯ π b ?
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Exercise 3E Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 72-73
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