1. Jeopardy
Prenatal Care
Genetic Disorders
Hodge Podge
PCR
Name that Vector
Terminology
100
100
100
100
100
100
200
200
200
200
200
200
300
300
300
300
300
300
400
400
400
400
400
400
500
500
500
500
500
500

2. A ___________ recognizes specific DNA sequences and cuts DNA.

3. Restriction Enzyme/Endonuclease

4. The process where the double strands of DNA separate is called

5. Denaturation
A 200

6. What kind of ends are left by the HaeIII restriction enzyme?
GG|CC
CC|GG
A 300

7. Blunt Ends/Smooth
A 300

8. If a restriction enzyme were to cut a strand of DNA three times, how many RFLPs (restriction fragment length polymorphisms) would show up on a gel?
A 400

9. Four
A 400

10. The more cycles you run in the thermal cycler, the _______ your bands will be in your gel

11. Thicker/darker
A 500

12. A process that involves removing and analyzing cells of the placenta is known as
B 100

13. Chorionic Villus Sampling
B 100

14. A procedure in which gametes are fertilized in a dish in the laboratory, and the resulting zygote is implanted in the uterus for development is
B 200

15. In Vitro Fertilization
B 200

16. What is a characteristic of both CVS and amniocentesis?

17. Detect chromosomal abnormalities

18. Which procedure involves removing a single cell from an embryo to determine gender?

19. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
B 400

20. What method can be used to select gender based on separating gametes differing chromosomal weight?

21. Sperm sorting
B 500

22. C 100

23. Herpes Simplex Virus
C 100

24. C 200

25. Naked DNA
C 200

26. C 300

27. Retrovirus
C 300

28. DAILY DOUBLE
DAILY DOUBLE
Place A Wager
C 400

29. C 400

30. Adeno-associated virus

31. C 500

32. Liposome
C 500

33. Duschene Muscle Dystrophy: a disorder inherited on chromosomes that determine gender.

34. Sex-Linked/Single Gene

35. Cystic Fibrosis: a disorder that is only expressed when two copies of the gene are present.

36. Autosomal Recessive/Single Gene
D 200

37. Huntington’s disease: a disorder expressed when only one copy of the gene is present.

38. Autosomal Dominant/Single Gene

39. Leber Optic Neuropathy: a disorder that is inherited from the mother only.

40. Mitochondrial
D 400

41. Alzheimer’s: a disorder that is dependent on environment as well as genetics.

42. Multifactorial
D 500

43. The genetic makeup of an organism

44. Genotype
E 100

45. The physical and physiological traits of an organism

46. Phenotype
E 200

47. Using a somatic or body cell from an organism to make one or more genetically identical individuals

48. Cloning
E 300

49. Analysis of neonate’s blood to detect genetic disorders

50. Newborn Screening
E 400

51. The clear liquid left behind after a precipitate has been spun down

52. Supernatant
E 500

53. The examination of members of a population to detect heterozygotes of serious disorders is called

54. Carrier Screening
F 100

55. All of an organism’s genes are known as

56. Genome
F 200

57. A display of chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by size and shape is a(n)

58. Karyotype
F 300

59. Parts of the human genome that vary by one nucleotide are called

60. SNPs
F 400

61. The use of vectors to affect the immune response in cells causing a change in genes is called what?

62. Gene therapy
F 500

63. The Final Jeopardy Category is: Gel Electrophoresis
Please record your wager.
Click on screen to begin

64. Click on screen to continue
A family was wondering about the heredity of a certain gene that causes early onset of Alzheimer's. The gene for this trait is dominant. One copy of the gene will cause early onset of Alzheimer's. Those who are homozygous recessive do NOT end up getting Alzheimer's at an early age, but may still develop it later on in life. The SNP that causes the early onset gene occurs when on T is changed to a C. The restriction enzyme used to cut these genes recognizes this and cuts the DNA into two pieces.
Click on screen to continue

65. Joseph and Trisha both have at least one copy of the faulty gene
Click on screen to continue