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CorePure2 Chapter 1 :: Complex Numbers
Last modified: 15th February 2019
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OVERVIEW 1 :: Exponential form of a complex number
2 :: Multiplying and dividing complex numbers 3 :: De Moivreβs Theorem If π§=π( cos π+π sin π ) , π§ π = π π ( cos ππ +π sin ππ ) πππ 2π+π π ππ 2π β π 2ππ If π§ 1 and π§ 2 are two complex numbers, what happens to their moduli when we find π§ 1 π§ 2 . What happens to their arguments when we find π§ 1 π§ 2 ? 4 :: De Moivreβs for Trigonometric Identities 6 :: Sums of series βGiven that π§= cos π π +π sin π π , where π is a positive integer, show that 1+π§+ π§ 2 +β¦+ π§ πβ1 =1+π cot π 2π β βExpress cos 3π in terms of powers of cos π β Note for teachers: Most of this content is the old FP2, but sums of series is new. 5 :: Roots βSolve π§ 4 =3+2πβ
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RECAP :: Modulus-Argument Form
Im[z] (π₯,π¦) If π=π+ππ (and suppose in this case π§ is in the first quadrant), what was: π π π= π§ = π π + π π π=arg π§ = πππ§ βπ π π ? Re[z] ? ? modulus argument ? When βπ<π<π it is known as the principal argument. ? Then in terms of π and π: π=π ππ¨π¬ π½ π=π π¬π’π§ π½ π=π+ππ =π πππ π½+π ππππ π½ =π ππ¨π¬ π½+π π¬π’π§ π½ ? ? This is known as the modulus-argument form of π§. ? ?
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RECAP :: Modulus-Argument Form
π+ππ π π½ Mod-arg form β1 1 π π§= cos π +π sin π π π 2 π§= cos π 2 +π sin π 2 1+π 2 π 4 π§= 2 cos π 4 +π sin π 4 β 3 +π 5π 6 π§=2 cos 5π 6 +π sin 5π 6 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
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Exponential Form Weβve seen the Cartesian form a complex number π§=π₯+π¦π and the modulus-argument form π§=π( cos π+π sin π ) . But wait, thereβs a third form! In the later chapter on Taylor expansions, youβll see that you that you can write functions as an infinitely long polynomial: cos π₯ = β π₯ 2 2! π₯ 4 4! β π₯ 6 6! β¦ sin π₯ = π₯ β π₯ 3 3! π₯ 5 5! ββ¦ π π₯ = π₯+ π₯ 2 2! + π₯ 3 3! + π₯ 4 4! + π₯ 5 5! + π₯ 6 6! + It looks like the cos π₯ and sin π₯ somehow add to give π π₯ . The one problem is that the signs donβt quite match up. But π changes sign as we raise it to higher powers. π iπ =1+ππ+ ππ 2 2! + ππ 3 3! + ππ 4 4! +β¦ =1+ππβ π 2 2! β π π 3 3! + π 4 4! +β¦ = 1β π 2 2! + π 4 4! β π 6 6! +β¦ +π πβ π 3 3! + π 5 5! ββ¦ = cos π+π sin π Holy smokes Batman! ? ? ? ?
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Exponential Form ! Exponential form π§=π π ππ ? ? ? ? ? ? ?
You need to be able to convert to and from exponential form. π+ππ Mod-arg form Exp Form β1 π§= cos π +π sin π π§= π ππ 2β3π π§= 13 π β0.983π 2 cos π 10 +π sin π 10 π§= 2 π ππ 10 β1+π 2 cos 3π 4 +π sin 3π 4 π§= 2 π 3ππ 4 2 cos 3π 5 +π sin 3π 5 π§=2 π 23ππ 5 π ππ
+π=π This is Eulerβs identity. It relates the five most fundamental constants in maths! ? ? ? ? To get Cartesian form, put in modulus-argument form first. ? ? ? Notice this is not a principal argument.
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A Final Example Use π ππ = cos π +π sin π to show that cos π = 1 2 ( π ππ + π βππ ) ? π ππ = cos π +π sin π π βππ = cos βπ +π sin βπ = cos π βπ sin π β΄ π ππ + π βππ =2 cos π β΄ cos π = 1 2 ( π ππ + π βππ )
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Exercise 1A Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Page 5
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Multiplying and Dividing Complex Numbers
If π§ 1 = π 1 cos π 1 +π sin π 1 and π§ 2 = π 2 cos π 2 +π sin π 2 Then: π§ 1 π§ 2 = π π π π ( ππ¨π¬ π½ π + π½ π +π π¬π’π§ ( π½ π + π½ π )) π§ 1 π§ 2 = π π π π ( ππ¨π¬ π½ π β π½ π +π π¬π’π§ ( π½ π β π½ π )) ? ? i.e. If you multiply two complex numbers, you multiply the moduli and add the arguments, and if you divide them, you divide the moduli and subtract the arguments. Similarly if π§ 1 = π 1 π π π 1 and π§ 2 = π 2 π π π 2 Then: π§ 1 π§ 2 = π π π π π π π½ π + π½ π π§ 1 π§ 2 = π π π π π π π½ π β π½ π ? ?
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Examples 3 cos 5π 12 +π sin 5π 12 Γ4 cos π 12 +π sin π =ππ ππ¨π¬ π
π +π πππ π
π =ππ π+π π =πππ 1 ? cos π βπ sin π can be written as cos βπ +π sin (βπ ) 2 cos π 15 +π sin π 15 Γ3 cos 2π 5 βπ sin 2π =2 cos π 15 +π sin π 15 Γ3 cos β 2π 5 +π sin β 2π =π ππ¨π¬ β π
π +π πππ β π
π =πβπ π π 2 ? 3 Write in the form π π ππ : 2 cos π 12 +π sin π cos 5π 6 +π sin 5π 6 = π ππ¨π¬ β ππ
π +π π¬π’π§ β ππ
π = π π β ππ
π π ?
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Test Your Understanding
Edexcel FP2(Old) June 2013 Q2 π§=5 3 β5π Find |π§| (1) argβ‘(π§) in terms of π (2) π€=2 cos π 4 +π sin π 4 (c) π€ π§ (1) (d) arg π€ π§ (2) ? ? ? ?
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Exercise 1B Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 7-8
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Secret Alternative Way
De Moivreβs Theorem We saw that: π§ 1 π§ 2 = π π π π ( ππ¨π¬ π½ π + π½ π +π π¬π’π§ ( π½ π + π½ π )) Can you think therefore what π§ π is going to be? ! If π§=π πππ π+π π ππ π π π = π π ππ¨π¬ ππ½ +π π¬π’π§ ππ½ This is known as De Moivreβs Theorem. ? Edexcel FP2(Old) June 2013 Q4 Prove by induction that π§ π = π π cos ππ +π sin ππ They so went there... ? Secret Alternative Way ?
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De Moivreβs Theorem for Exponential Form
If π§=π π ππ then π π = π π ππ½ π = π π π πππ½ ?
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Examples Simplify cos 9π 17 +π sin 9π cos 2π 17 β π sin 2π = πππ ππ
ππ +π πππ ππ
ππ π πππ β ππ
ππ + π πππ β ππ
ππ π = ππ¨π¬ πππ
ππ +π π¬π’π§ πππ
ππ πππ β ππ
ππ + π πππ β ππ
ππ = ππ¨π¬ ππ
+π π¬π’π§ ππ
= ππ¨π¬ π
+π π¬π’π§ π
=βπ Express π 7 in the form π₯+ππ¦ where π₯,π¦ββ. π+ π π=π( ππ¨π¬ π
π +π π¬π’π§ π
π ) Therefore π+ π π π = π π ππ¨π¬ ππ
π +π π¬π’π§ ππ
π =πππ ππ¨π¬ π
π +π π¬π’π§ π
π =ππ+ππ π π ? ?
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Test Your Understanding
Edexcel FP2(Old) June 2010 Q4 ? ?
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Exercise 1C Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 10-11
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Applications of de Moivre #1: Trig identities
Express cos 3π in terms of powers of cos π Is there someway we could use de Moivreβs theorem to get a cos 3π term? ππ¨π¬ π½ +π π¬π’π§ π½ π = ππ¨π¬ ππ½ +π π¬π’π§ ππ½ Could we use the LHS to get another expression? Use a Binomial expansion! cos π +π sin π 3 =π ππ¨π¬ π π½ +π ππ¨π¬ π π½ π π¬π’π§ π½ +π ππ¨π¬ π½ π π¬π’π§ π½ π + π π¬π’π§ π½ π = ππ¨π¬ π π½ +ππ ππ¨π¬ π π½ π¬π’π§ π½ βπ ππ¨π¬ π½ π¬π’π§ π π½ βπ π¬π’π§ π π½ How could we then compare the two expressions? Equating real parts: ππ¨π¬ ππ½ = ππ¨π¬ π π½ βπ ππ¨π¬ π½ π¬π’π§ π π½ =β¦ =π ππ¨π¬ π π½ βπ ππ¨π¬ π½ ? ? ?
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Applications of de Moivre #1: Trig identities
Express cos 6π in terms of cos π . sin 6π sin π , πβ ππ, in terms of cos π . cos π +π sin π 6 = cos 6π +π sin 6π = cos 6 π +6 cos 5 π π sin π +β¦ = cos 6 π +6π cos 5 π sin π β15 cos 4 π sin 2 π β20π cos 3 π sin 3 π +15 cos 2 π sin 4 π +6π cos π sin 5 π β sin 6 π Equating real parts: cos 6π = cos 6 π β15 cos 4 π sin 2 π +15 cos 2 π sin 4 π β sin 6 π =32 cos 6 π β48 cos 4 π +18 cos 2 π β1 Equating imaginary parts: (and simplifying) sin 6π =32 cos 5 π β32 cos 3 π +6 cos π
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Test Your Understanding
Edexcel FP2(Old) June 2011 Q7 Use de Moivreβs theorem to show that (5) sin 5π =16 sin 5 π β20 sin 3 π +5 sin π Hence, given also that sin 3π =3 sin π β4 sin 3 π Find all the solutions of sin 5π =5 sin 3π in the interval 0β€π<2π. Give your answers to 3 decimal places. (6) ? ?
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Finding identities for sin π π and cos π π
The technique weβve seen allows us to write say cos 3π in terms of powers of cos π (e.g. cos 3 π ). Is it possible to do the opposite, to say express cos 3 π in terms of a linear combination of cos 3π and cos π (with no powers)? If π§= cos π +π sin π , what is π§+ 1 π§ and π§β 1 π§ ? π π = π βπ = ππ¨π¬ π½+π π¬π’π§ π½ βπ = ππ¨π¬ βπ½ +π π¬π’π§ βπ½ = ππ¨π¬ π½ βπ π¬π’π§ π½ β΄π+ π π =β¦=π ππ¨π¬ π½ πβ π π =ππ π¬π’π§ π½ And what is π§ π + 1 π§ π ? Just using de Moivreβs theorem again: π π + π π π =π ππ¨π¬ ππ½ ? ? ! Results you need to use (but you donβt need to memorise) π§+ 1 π§ =2 cos π π§ π + 1 π§ π =2 cos ππ π§β 1 π§ =2π sin π π§ π β 1 π§ π =2π sin ππ
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Finding identities for sin π π and cos π π
Express cos 5 π in the form π cos 5π +π cos 3π +π cos π Starting point? 2 cos π 5 = π§+ 1 π§ cos 5 π = π§ 5 +5 π§ 3 +10π§+ 10 π§ + 5 π§ π§ cos 5 π = π§ π§ π§ π§ π§+ 1 π§ =2 cos 5π +5(2 cos 3π )+10(2 cos π ) Therefore cos 5 π= cos 5π cos 3π cos π ? Notice how the powers descend by 2 each time. ? ? Using identities below. ? π§+ 1 π§ =2 cos π π§ π + 1 π§ π =2 cos ππ π§β 1 π§ =2π sin π π§ π β 1 π§ π =2π sin ππ
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Finding identities for sin π π and cos π π
Prove that sin 3 π =β 1 4 sin 3π sin π Starting point? 2π sin π 3 = π§β 1 π§ 3 β8π sin 3 π = π§ 3 β3π§+ 3 π§ β 1 π§ = π§ 3 β 1 π§ 3 β3 π§β 1 π§ =2π sin 3π β3(2π sin π ) Therefore dividing by β8π: sin 3 π= β 1 4 sin 3π sin π ? Fro Speed Tip: Remember that terms in such an expansion oscillate between positive and negative. ? ? Again using identities. ? π§+ 1 π§ =2 cos π π§ π + 1 π§ π =2 cos ππ π§β 1 π§ =2π sin π π§ π β 1 π§ π =2π sin ππ
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Test Your Understanding
(a) Express sin 4 π in the form π cos 4π +π cos 2π +π (b) Hence find the exact value of 0 π 2 sin 4 π ππ 2π sin π 4 = π§β 1 π§ sin 4 π = π§ 4 β4 π§ 2 +6β 4 π§ π§ = π§ π§ 4 β4 π§ π§ =2 cos 4π β4 2 cos 2π +6 β΄ sin 4 π = 1 8 cos 4π β 1 2 cos 2π + 3 8 0 π 2 sin 4 π ππ = sin 4π β 1 4 sin 2π π 0 π 2 = 3π 16 Starting point? ? ? ? ? ? π§+ 1 π§ =2 cos π π§ π + 1 π§ π =2 cos ππ π§β 1 π§ =2π sin π π§ π β 1 π§ π =2π sin ππ
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Exercise 1D Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 14-15
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Sums of Series The formula for the sum of a geometric series also applies to complex numbers: For π€,π§ββ, Ξ£ π=0 πβ1 π€ π§ π =π€+π€π§+π€ π§ 2 +β¦+π€ π§ πβ1 = π€ π§ π β1 π§β1 Ξ£ π=0 β π€ π§ π =π€+π€π§+π€ π§ 2 +β¦+π€ π§ πβ1 = π€ π§β1 provided π§ <1 No need to write these down. These are just π π and π β for geometric series. Side Note: When we covered series before, |β¦| was understood to give the βunsigned valueβ of a quantity. But this can just be thought of as the 1D version of finding the magnitude of a vector/complex number. e.g. β4 =4 because -4 has a distance of 4 from 0 on a number line just as =5 because (3,4) has a distance of 5 from the origin.
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Example [Textbook] Given that π§= cos π π +π sin π π , where π is a positive integer, show that 1+π§+ π§ 2 +β¦+ π§ πβ1 =1+π cot π 2π 1+π§+ π§ 2 +β¦+ π§ πβ1 = π§ π β1 π§β1 = π ππ π π β1 π ππ π β1 = π ππ β1 π ππ π β1 = β2 π ππ π β1 =β β2 π β ππ 2π π ππ 2π β π β ππ 2π =β β2 π β ππ 2π 2π sin π 2π = β2π π β ππ 2π 2 π 2 sin π 2π = π π β ππ 2π sin π 2π = π cos β π 2π +π sin β π 2π sin π 2π = π cos π 2π βπ sin π 2π sin π 2π = sin π 2π +π cos 2 π π sin π 2π =1+π cot π 2π ? IMPORTANT: One of our earlier identities: π§ π β π§ βπ =2π sin ππ Thus if we had an expression of the form π ππ β1, we could cleverly factorise out π ππ 2 (i.e. half the power) to get π ππ 2 π ππ 2 β π β ππ 2 β π ππ 2 2π sin π 2 Thus where π ππ β1 occurs in a fraction, multiply numerator and denominator by π β ππ 2 so that we have just π ππ 2 β π β ππ 2
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Letβs practise that hard bitβ¦
If π=πππ π½+π πππ π½= π ππ½ π§ π β π§ βπ =2π sin ππ Thus if we had an expression of the form π ππ β1, we could cleverly factorise out π ππ 2 (i.e. half the power) to get π ππ 2 π ππ 2 β π β ππ 2 β π ππ 2 2π sin π 2 Thus where π ππ β1 occurs in a fraction, multiply numerator and denominator by π β ππ 2 so that we have just π ππ 2 β π β ππ 2 ? 3 π 2ππ β1 = π π βππ½ π ππ½ β π βππ½ = π π βππ½ ππ π¬π’π§ π½ ? The π is 2 because if π§= π ππ then π§ 2 = π 2ππ 4 π ππ π 4ππ β1 = π π βππ½ π πππ½ β π βπππ½ = π π βππ½ ππ π¬π’π§ ππ½ 1 π ππ 3 β1 = π β ππ½ π π ππ½ π β π β ππ½ π = π β ππ½ π ππ π¬π’π§ π½ π ?
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Using mod-arg form to split summation
π ππ + π 2ππ + π 3ππ +β¦+ π πππ is a geometric series, β΄ π ππ + π 2ππ + π 3ππ +β¦+ π πππ = π ππ π πππ β1 π ππ β1 Converting each exponential term to modulus-argument form would allow us to consider the real and imaginary parts of the series separately: π ππ + π 2ππ + π 3ππ +β¦+ π πππ = cos π+π sin π + cos 2π+π sin 2π +β¦ = cos π + cos 2π +β¦ +π sin π + sin 2π +β¦ Thus cos π + cos 2π +β¦ is the real part of π ππ π πππ β1 π ππ β1 and sin π + sin 2π +β¦ the imaginary part.
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Example [Textbook] π= π ππ + π 2ππ + π 3ππ +β¦+ π 8ππ , for πβ 2ππ, where π is an integer. Show that π= π 9ππ 2 sin 4π sin π 2 Let π= cos π + cos 2π + cos 3π +β¦+ cos 8π and π= sin π + sin 2π +β¦+ sin 8π (b) Use your answer to part a to show that π= cos 9π 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π 2 and find similar expressions for π and π π π ππ + π 2ππ + π 3ππ +β¦+ π 8ππ = π ππ π ππ 8 β1 π ππ β1 = π ππ π ππ 8 β1 π ππ β1 = π ππ π 8ππ β1 π ππ β1 = π ππ 2 π 8ππ β1 π ππ 2 β π β ππ 2 = π ππ 2 π 8ππ β1 2π sin π 2 = π π ππ 2 π 8ππ β1 2 π 2 sin π 2 = π 9ππ 2 sin 4π sin π 2 a ? We can again use the trick of multiplying π ππ β1 by π β ππ 2 π§ π β π§ βπ =2π sin ππ
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Example [Textbook] π= π ππ + π 2ππ + π 3ππ +β¦+ π 8ππ , for πβ 2ππ, where π is an integer. Show that π= π 9ππ 2 sin 4π sin π 2 Let π= cos π + cos 2π + cos 3π +β¦+ cos 8π and π= sin π + sin 2π +β¦+ sin 8π (b) Use your answer to part a to show that π= cos 9π 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π 2 and find similar expressions for π and π π First note that π= π 9ππ 2 sin 4π sin π 2 = π 9ππ 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π 2 But also, by expressing each term within π= π ππ + π 2π β¦ in modulus-argument form, we have π=π+ππ β΄π=π
π π =π
π π 9ππ 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π = cos 9π 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π 2 Similarly: π=πΌπ π = sin 9π 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π 2 π π = sin 9π 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π 2 cos 9π 2 sin 4π πππ ππ π 2 = tan 9π 2 b ?
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Exercise 1E Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 18-19
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We have so far used de Moivreβs theorem when π was an integer.
Applications of de Moivre #2: Roots π§ π = π π cos ππ +π sin ππ We have so far used de Moivreβs theorem when π was an integer. It also works however when π is a rational number! (proof not required) Solve π§ 3 =1 Plot these roots on an Argand diagram. ? The modulus-argument form of 1 is 1( πππ 0 +π π ππ 0 ) thus: π§ 3 =1 cos 0 +π sin =1( cos 0+2ππ +π sin 0+2ππ π§ = cos 2ππ +π sin 2ππ = cos 2ππ 3 +π sin 2ππ 3 π=0, π§ 1 = cos 0 +π sin 0 =1 π=1, π§ 2 = cos 2π 3 +π sin 2π 3 =β 1 2 +π π=2, π§ 3 = cos 4π 3 +π sin 4π 3 =β 1 2 βπ These are known as the βcube roots of unityβ (more on this in a bit). In Pure Year 1 I mentioned in a side note that by the Fundamental Law of Arithmetic, a polynomial of order π has π solutions (some potentially repeated and some potentially not real). So this equation has 3 solutions. ? 2π 3 π§ 2 π§ 1 π§ 3 1 is always a root β the rest are spread out equally distributed. Weβll see why we get this pattern on the next slide.
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More on Roots of Unity The solutions to π§ π =1 are known as the βroots of unityβ (1 is a βunitβ). Why are they nicely spread out? 1 is clearly a root as 1 π =1. In the method on the previous slide, we ended up adding 2ππ π to the argument, but left the modulus untouched. If π=3 then this rotates the line 2π 3 =120Β° each time. When π=π then we would have rotated 2ππ π =2π so end up where we started. 2π 3 π§ 2 π§ 1 π§ 3 π π =π Then by De Moivreβs, then π 2 would be: π 2 = cos 2π 3 +π sin 2π = cos 4π 3 +π sin 4π 3 i.e. the next root! Therefore, the roots can be represented as 1, π, π 2 . Since the resultant βvectorβ is 0, then 1+π+ π 2 =0. Formal Proof: Geometric series where π=1 and π=π and π=π. π π = π π π β1 πβ1 = π π β1 πβ1 = 1β1 πβ1 =0 Suppose this root is π (Greek letter βomegaβ)β¦ π= cos 2π 3 +π sin 2π 3 ! If π§ π =1 and π= π 2ππ π then 1,π, π 2 ,β¦, π πβ1 are the roots and 1+π+ π 2 +β¦+ π πβ1 =0
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Example ? [Textbook] Solve π§ 4 =2+2 3 π
π§ 4 =4 cos π 3 +π sin π =4 cos π 3 +2ππ +π sin ( π 3 +2ππ ) π§ = cos π ππ 4 +π sin π ππ 4 π=0, π§= 2 cos π 12 +π sin π 12 π=1, π§= 2 cos 7π 12 +π sin 7π 12 π=2, π§= 2 cos 13π 12 +π sin 13π = 2 cos β 11π π sin β 11π 12 π=3, π§=β¦ We need principal roots. Alternative is to use π=0, 1, β1, β2 instead of 0, 1, 2, 3, which will give your principal roots directly.
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Test Your Understanding
Edexcel FP2(Old) June 2012 Q3 Express the complex number β π in the form π cos π+π sin π , βπ<πβ€π (3) Solve the equation π§ 4 =β i giving the roots in the form π cos π +π sin π , βπ<πβ€π (5) ? ? You can avoid the previous large amount of working by just dividing your angle by the power (4), and adding/subtracting increments of 2π again divided by the power.
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Exercise 1F Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 24-25
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Solving Geometric Problems
We already saw in the previous exercise that the roots of an equation such as that on the left give evenly spaced points in the Argand diagram, because the modulus remained the same but we kept adding 2π π to the argument. These points formed a regular hexagon, and in general for π§ π =π , form a regular π-agon. Recall that π is the first root of unity: cos 2π π +π sin 2π π . This has modulus 1 and argument 2π π . π§ 6 =7+24π Suppose π π was the first root of π§ 6 =7+24π. Then consider the product π§ 1 π. What happens? Multiplying these multiplies the moduli. But π =π therefore the modulus of π π is unaffected. But we also add the arguments. ππ«π π = ππ
π so multiplying by π rotates π π by this. We can see therefore that it gives us the next root, i.e. π π = π π π. ! If π§ 1 is one root of the equation π§ π =π , and 1,π, π 2 ,β¦, π πβ1 are the πth roots of unity, then the roots of π§ π =π are given by π§ 1 , π§ 1 π, π§ 1 π 2 ,β¦, π§ 1 π πβ1 . ?
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Example [Textbook] The point π 3 ,1 lies at one vertex of an equilateral triangle. The centre of the triangle is at the origin. Find the coordinates of the other vertices of the triangle. Find the area of the triangle. a ? Convert 3 +π to either exponential of modulus-argument form. We can then rotate the point 120Β° around origin (and again) by multiplying by π. 3 +π=2 π π 6 π and π= π 2π 3 π Next vertex: 2 π π 6 π Γ π 2π 3 π =2 π 5π 6 π =β 3 +π β β 3 ,1 2 π 5π 6 π Γ π 2π 3 π =2 π 3π 2 π =2 π β π 2 π =β2π β (0,β2) Area = 1 2 Γπππ πΓβπππβπ‘ = 1 2 Γ2 3 Γ3 =3 3 ? Diagram (β 3 ,1) ( 3 ,1) (0,β2) π₯ π¦ b ?
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Exercise 1G Pearson Core Pure Year 2 Pages 26-27
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