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FP1 Chapter 6 β Proof By Induction
Dr J Frost Last modified: 31st March 2015
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What is Proof by Induction?
We tend to use proof by induction whenever we want to show some property holds for all integers (usually positive). Example Show that π=1 π π = 1 2 π π+1 for all πββ. Showing itβs true for a few values of π is not a proof. We need to show itβs true for ALL values of π. If itβs true for π=1, it must be true for π=2. If itβs true for π=3, it must be true for π=4. π=π π=π π=π π=π π=π β¦ If itβs true for π=2, it must be true for π=3. Suppose we could prove the above is true for the first value of π, i.e. π=1. And so on. Hence the statement must be true for all π. Suppose that if we assumed itβs true for π=π, then we could prove itβs true for π=π+1. Then:
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Chapter Overview Summation Proofs Divisibility Proofs
We will use Proof of Induction for 4 different types of proof: 1 Summation Proofs Show that π=1 π π = 1 2 π π+1 for all πββ. 2 Divisibility Proofs Prove that π 3 β7π+9 is divisible by 3 for all πβ β€ + . 3 Recurrence Relation Proofs Given that π’ π+1 =3 π’ π +4, π’ 1 =1, prove that π’ π = 3 π β2 Prove that 1 β π = 1 1β 2 π π for all πβ β€ + . 4 Matrix Proofs Bro Tip: Recall that β€ is the set of all integers, and β€ + is the set of all positive integers. Thus β= β€ + .
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The Four Steps of Induction
For all these types the process of proof is the same: ! Proof by induction: Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. (Step 1 is commonly known as the βbase caseβ and Step 3 as the βinductive caseβ)
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Type 1: Summation Proofs
Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Show that π=1 π (2πβ1) = π 2 for all πββ. 1 Basis Step ? When π=1, πΏπ»π= π=1 1 2πβ1 =2 1 β1 =1 π
π»π= 1 2 = πΏπ»π=π
π»π so summation true for π=1. 2 Assumption ? Assume summation true for π=π. So π=1 π (2πβ1) = π 2 3 Inductive ? When π=π+1: π=1 π+1 2πβ1 = π=1 π 2πβ π+1 β1 = π 2 +2π+1 = π+1 2 Hence true when π=π+1. 4 Conclusion ? Since true for π=1 and if true for π=π, true for π=π+1, β΄ true for all π.
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More on the βConclusion Stepβ
βAs result is true for π=1, this implies true for all positive integers and hence true by induction.β I lifted this straight from a mark scheme, hence use this exact wording! The mark scheme specifically says: (For method mark) Any 3 of these seen anywhere in the proof: βtrue for π=πβ βassume true for π=πβ βtrue for π=π+πβ βtrue for all π/positive integersβ
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Test Your Understanding
Edexcel FP1 Jan 2010 ?
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Exercise 6A All questions except Q2.
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Type 2: Divisibility Proofs
Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Prove by induction that 3 2π +11 is divisible by 4 for all positive integers π. 1 Basis Step ? Let π π = 3 2π +11, where πβ β€ + . π 1 = =20 which is divisible by 4. 2 Assumption ? Assume that for π=π, π π = 3 2π +11 is divisible by 4 for πβ β€ + . β¦
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Type 2: Divisibility Proofs
Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Prove by induction that 3 2π +11 is divisible by 4 for all positive integers π. 3 Inductive ? Method 1 (the textbookβs method, which I donβt like) Find the difference between successive terms and show this is divisible by the number of interest. π π+1 = 3 2 π = 3 2π β
=9 3 2π +11 β΄π π+1 βπ π = π +11 β 3 2π +11 =8 3 2π = π β΄π π+1 =π π π Therefore π(π) is divisible by 4 when π=π+1. Bro Tip: Putting in terms of 3 2π allows us to better compare with the assumption case since the power is now the same. Method: You need to explicitly factor out 4 to show divisibility by 4. Method: Then write π π+1 back in term of π(π) and the difference. We know both the terms on the RHS are divisible by 4. 4 Conclusion ? Since true for π=1 and if true for π=π, true for π=π+1, β΄ true for all π.
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Type 2: Divisibility Proofs
Prove by induction that 3 2π +11 is divisible by 4 for all positive integers π. 3 Inductive Method 2 (presented as βAlternative Methodβ in mark schemes) Directly write π(π+1) in form π π +π(β¦) by βsplitting offβ π(π) or some multiple of it, where π is the divisibility number. π π+1 = 3 2 π = 3 2π β
=9 3 2π +11 = 3 2π π =π π π Therefore π(π) is divisible by 4 when π=π+1. ? Method: We have separated π π ππ into 3 2π π because it allowed us to then replace 3 2π +11 with π(π) This method is far superior for two reasons: The idea of βseparating out π(π)β is much more conceptually similar to both summation proofs and (when we encounter it) matrix proofs, whereas using π π+1 βπ(π) is specific to divisibility proofs. Thus we neednβt see divisibility proofs as a different method from the other types. Weβll encounter a question next where we need to get in the form π π+1 =π π π +π(β¦), i.e. we in fact separate out a multiple of π(π). Thus causes absolute havoc for Method 1 as our difference π π+1 βπ(π) has to refer to π(π), which is mathematically inelegant.
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Type 2: Divisibility Proofs
Prove by induction that 8 π β 3 π is divisible by 5. 2 Assumption ? Assume that for π=π, π π = 8 π β 3 π is divisible by 5 for πβ β€ + . 3 Inductive ? Using Method 2 When π=π+1: π π+1 = 8 π+1 β 3 π+1 =8 8 π β3 3 π =3 8 π β 3 π π =3π π +5( 8 π ) therefore true for π=π+1. Method: We have 3 lots of 8 π and 3 π we can split off.
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Test Your Understanding
Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Prove by induction that π 3 β7π+9 is divisible by 3 for all positive integers π. 1 Basis Step ? Let π π = π 3 β7π+9, where πβ β€ + . π 1 =3 which is divisible by 3. 2 Assumption ? Assume that for π=π, π π = π 3 β7π+9 is divisible by 3 for πβ β€ + . 3 Inductive ? Method 1: π π+1 = π+1 3 β7 π+1 +9 =β¦ = π 3 +3 π 2 β4π+3 β΄π π+1 βπ π =β¦=3 π 2 +πβ2 β΄π π+1 =π π +3 π 2 +πβ2 Therefore π(π) is divisible by 3 when π=π+1. Method 2: π π+1 = π+1 3 β7 π+1 +9 =β¦ = π 3 +3 π 2 β4π+3 = π 3 β7π+9+3 π 2 +3πβ6 =π π +3 π 2 +πβ2 Therefore π(π) is divisible by 3 when π=π+1. 4 Conclusion ? Since true for π=1 and if true for π=π, true for π=π+1, β΄ true for all π.
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Exercise 6B Page 130. All questions.
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Type 3: Recurrence Relation Proofs
Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Notice that weβre trying to prove a position-to-term formula from a term-to-term one. Given that π’ π+1 =3 π’ π +4 and π’ 1 =1, prove by induction that π’ π = 3 π β2 1 Basis Step ? When π=1, π’ 1 = 3 1 β2=1 as given. IMPORTANT NOTE: The textbook gets this wrong (bottom of Page 131), saying that π π is required. I checked a mark scheme β it isnβt. Bro Tip: You need to carefully reflect on what statement you are trying to prove, i.e. π’ π = 3 π β2, and what statement is GIVEN (and thus already know to be true), i.e. π’ π+1 =3 π’ π +4 2 Assumption ? Assume that for π=π, π’ π = 3 π β2 is true for πβ β€ + . Then π’ π+1 =3 π’ π +4 =3 3 π β2 +4 = 3 π+1 β6+4 = 3 π+1 β2 3 Inductive ? Method: Sub in your assumption expression into the recurrence. Bro Tip: For harder questions, write out what youβre trying to prove in advance, i.e. that we want to get 3 π+1 β2, , to help guide your manipulation. 4 Conclusion ? Since true for π=1 and if true for π=π, true for π=π+1, β΄ true for all π.
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Test Your Understanding
Edexcel FP1 Jan 2011 ?
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(Warning: slightly different to before)
Recurrence Relations based on two previous terms Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Given that π’ π+2 =5 π’ π+1 β6 π’ π and π’ 1 =13, π’ 2 =35, prove by induction that π’ π = 2 π π+1 1 Basis Step ? When π=1, π’ 1 = =13 as given. When π=2, π’ 2 = =35 as given. We have two base cases so had to check 2 terms! 2 Assumption ? Assume that for π=π and π=π+1, π’ π = 2 π π+1 and π’ π+1 = 2 π π+2 is true for πβ β€ + . We need two previous instances of π in our assumption case now. 3 Inductive ? Let π=π+1 (Brominder: itβs worth noting in advance weβre aiming for π’ π+1 = 2 π π+1 +1 ) Then π’ π+2 =5 π’ π+1 β6 π’ π =5 2 π π+1 β6 2 π π+1 =β¦ = 2 π π = 2 π π+2+1 4 Conclusion ? (Warning: slightly different to before) Since true for π=1 and π=2 and if true for π=π and π=π+1, true for π=π+2, β΄ true for all π.
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Exercise 6C Page 132. Q1, 3, 5, 7
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Type 4: Matrix Proofs Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Prove by induction that 1 β π = 1 1β 2 π π for all πβ β€ + . 1 Basis Step ? When π=1, πΏπ»π= 1 β = 1 β1 0 2 π
π»π= 1 1β = 1 β As πΏπ»π=π
π»π, true for π=1. Assume true π=π, i.e β π = 1 1β 2 π π 2 Assumption ? When π=π+1, 1 β π+1 = 1 β π 1 β = 1 1β 2 π π β1 0 2 =β¦= 1 1β 2 π π+1 Therefore true when π=π+1. 3 Inductive ? Method: As with summation and divisibility proofs, itβs just a case of βseparating offβ the assumption expression. 4 Conclusion ? Since true for π=1 and if true for π=π, true for π=π+1, β΄ true for all π.
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Test Your Understanding
Step 1: Basis: Prove the general statement is true for π=1. Step 2: Assumption: Assume the general statement is true for π=π. Step 3: Inductive: Show that the general statement is then true for π=π+1. Step 4: Conclusion: The general statement is then true for all positive integers π. Prove by induction that β2 9 β1 4 π = β3π+1 9π βπ 3π+1 for all πβ β€ + . 1 Basis Step ? When π=1, πΏπ»π= β2 9 β = β2 9 β1 4 π
π»π= β3+1 9 β = β2 9 β As πΏπ»π=π
π»π, true for π=1. Assume true π=π, i.e. β2 9 β1 4 π = β3π+1 9π βπ 3π+1 2 Assumption ? When π=π+1, β2 9 β1 4 π+1 = β2 9 β1 4 π β2 9 β1 4 = β3π+1 9π βπ 3π+1 β2 9 β1 4 =β¦= β3πβ2 9π+9 βπβ1 3π+4 = β3 π (π+1) β(π+1) 3 π+1 +1 Therefore true when π=π+1. 3 Inductive ? 4 Conclusion ? Since true for π=1 and if true for π=π, true for π=π+1, β΄ true for all π.
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Exercise 6D Page 134. All questions.
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