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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 1 FINANCIAL ENGINEERING: DERIVATIVES AND RISK MANAGEMENT (J. Wiley, 2001) K. Cuthbertson and D. Nitzsche Lecture Value at Risk: Mapping Version 1/9/2001
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 2 VaR for Different Assets (Mapping) Stocks Foreign Assets Coupon Paying Bonds Other Assets (All of above have portfolio returns that are approximately ‘linear’ in individual returns ~ hence use VCV method) Topics
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 3 Your Cash : Is it Safe in Their Hands ? *
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 4 VaR for Different Assets (Mapping)
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 5 VaR for Different Assets: Practical Issues PROBLEMS STOCKS : Too many covariances [= n(n-1)/2 ] FOREIGN ASSETS : Need VaR in “home currency” BONDS: Many different coupons paid at different times DERIVATIVES: Options payoffs can be highly non- linear (ie. NOT normally distributed)
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 6 VaR for Different Assets: Practical Issues SOLUTIONS = “Mapping” STOCKS : Within each country use “single index model” SIM FOREIGN ASSETS : Treat asset in foreign country = “local currency risk”+ spot FX risk BONDS: treat each bond as a series of “zeros” OTHER ASSETS: Forward-FX, FRA’s Swaps: decompose into ‘constituent parts’. DERIVATIVES: ~ next lecture
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 7 Stocks/Equities and SIM
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 8 “Mapping” Equities using SIM Problem : Too many covariances to estimate Soln. All n(n-1)/2 covariances “collapse or mapped” into m and the asset betas (n-of them) Single Index Model: R i = a i + b i R m + e i R k = a k + b k R m + e k assume E i k = 0 and cov (R m, e) = 0 All the systematic variation in R i AND R k is due to R m ‘p’ = portfolio of stocks held in one country (R m, m ) for eg. S&P500 in US
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 9 Intuition 1) In a diversified portfolio ) =0 2) Then each return-i depends only on the market return (and beta). Hence ALL variances and covariances also only depend on these 2 factors. We then only require( n-betas + m )to calculate ALL our inputs for VaR. 3) = 1 because (in a well diversified portfolio) each return moves only with R m 4) We end up with [1]VaR p = V p p (1.65 m ) or equivalentlyVaR p = (Z C Z ’ ) 1/2 where C is the unit matrix
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 10 THE MATHS OF SIM AND VaR - OPTIONAL ! SIM implies: i,k =cov(R i,R k )= i k m i, 2 = var(R i ) = i m + ) BUT in diversified portfolio ) = 0 and = 1
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 11 We have(linear): R p = w 1 R 1 + w 2 R 2 + …. From the SIM we can deduce that for a PORTFOLIO of equities in one country Standard Deviation of the PORTFOLIO is given by : p = p m where: p = w i i (ie. portfolio beta requires, only n-beta’s) Hence: [1]VaR p = V p p (1.65 m ) THE MATHS OF SIM AND VaR - OPTIONAL !
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 12 Alternative Representation Eqn [1] above can be written: VaR p = (Z C Z ’ ) 1/2 where: VaR 1 = V 1 1.65 ( 1 m ) and VaR 2 =V 2 1.65 ( 2 m ) Z = [ VaR 1, VaR 2 ] C is the identity matrix C = ( 1 1 ; 1 1 ), since = 1 for the SIM and a well diversified portfolio.
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 13 SIM: Checking the Formulae [1] VaR p = V p p (1.65 m ) = V p ( w i i ) (1.65 m ) = (V 1 1 + V 2 2 ) (1.65 m ) The above can easily be shown to be the same as VaR p = (Z C Z ’ ) 1/2 = (1.65 m ) [ (V 1 1 ) 2 + (V 2 2 ) 2 + 2 V 1 1 V 2 2 ] 1/2 where VaR 1 = V 1 1.65( 1 m ) VaR 2 =V 2 1.65 ( 2 m ) and Z = [ VaR 1, VaR 2 ] and C = ( 1 1 ; 1 1 )
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 14 “Mapping” Foreign Assets into Domestic Currency
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 15 “Mapping” Foreign Assets into Domestic Currency US based investor with DM140m in DAX Two sources of risk a) variance of the DAX b) variance of $-DM exchange rate c) one covariance/correlation coefficient (between FX-rate and DAX) eg. Suppose when DAX falls then the DM also falls - ‘double whammy’ from this positive correlation
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 16 “ Mapping” Foreign Assets into Domestic Currency US based investor with DM140m in DAX FX rate : S = 0.714 $/DM ( 1.4 DM/$ ) Dollar initial value V o$ = 140/1.4 = $100m Linear R $ = R DAX + R $/DM above implies w i = V i / V 0$ = 1 and p = Dollar-VaR p = V o$ 1.65 p = correlation between return on DAX and FX rate
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 17 “Mapping” Foreign Assets into Domestic Currency Alternative Representation Dollar VaR Let Z = [ V 0,$ 1.65 DAX, V 0,$ 1.65 S ] = [ VaR 1, VaR 2 ] V 0,$ = $100m for both entries in the Z-vector Then VaR p = (Z C Z ’ ) 1/2
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 18 “Mapping”Coupon Paying Bonds
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 19 “Mapping”Coupon Paying Bonds Coupons paid at t=5 and t=7 Treat each coupon as a separate zero coupon bond P is linear in the ‘price’ of the zeros, V 5 and V 7 We require two variances of “prices” V 5 and V 7 and covariance between these prices. 5 (dV / V) = D (dy 5 )
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 20 Coupon Paying Bonds Treat each coupon as a zero Calculate PV of coupon = price of zero, V 5 = 100 / (1+y 5 ) 5 VaR 5 = V 5 (1.65 5 ) VaR 7 = V 7 (1.65 7 ) VaR (both coupon payments) = = correlation: bond prices at t=5 and t=7 (approx 0.95 - 0.99 )
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 21 567 Actual Cash Flow $ 100 m 57 RM Cash Flow Weights , 1- , are chosen to ensure weighted average volatility based on RM values of at 5 and 7 equals the interpolated volatility at “6” Mapping on to “standard” RMetrics Vertices
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 22 “MAPPING” OTHER ASSETS SWAP: =LONG FIXED RATE BOND AND SHORT AN FRN FRA (6m x 12m) = BORROW AT 6 MONTHS SPOT RATE +LEND AT 12M SPOT RATE FORWARD FX: =BORROW AND LEND IN DOMESTIC AND FOREIGN SPOT INTEREST RATES AND CONVERT PROCEEDS AT CURRENT SPOT-FX
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Copyright K.Cuthbertson, D. Nitzsche 23 End of Slides
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