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Published byErick Chambers Modified over 9 years ago
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Cost of Capital Dr Bryan Mills
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Risk and Return % return % risk
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Order of risk Treasury bills and gilts (risk free) Loan Notes –But ranked from AAA to BBB – with specialist ‘junk bonds’ being BB and less Equity
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Dividend Valuation Model Share price must be equal to or less than future cash flows: We can assume that D’s growth will be constant. (geometric progression).
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Assumptions Uses next year’s dividend so must be ex div Fixed rate of growth Dividends paid in perpetuity Share price is discounted future cashflow P Time P0P0 Cum Div Dividend Stream
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Dividend growth: Either old dividend divided by new dividend and answer looked up on discount factor table for that number of years or;
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Example: If a company now pays 32p and used to pay 20p 5 years ago what is the rate of growth? 20(1+g) n = 32 (1+g) n = 32 20 1 + g = (1.60)1/5 1 + g = 1.1 growth is 10%
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Gordon’s Growth Model Balance sheet asset value of £200, a profit of £20 in the year and a dividend pay out of 40% (in this case £8) we would expect the new balance to be £212 (old + retained profit). If the ARR and retention policy remain the same for the next year what will the dividend growth be? Profit as a % of capital employed is £20/£200 = 10% Next year has the same ARR then: 10% X £212 = £21.20 is our new profit as the dividend is 40% this equates to: 40% X £21.20 = £8.48 Which represents a growth of (8.48-8)/8 = 6% Which could have been found much quicker (!) by: g = rb, g = 10% X 60%, g = 6%
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Test Share price is £2, dividend to be paid soon is 16p, current return is 12.5% and 20% is paid out – what is cost of equity? g is rb – refer back to DVM for cost of equity
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Portfolio theory Investment A Investment B Time Rat e of Ret urn Time Combined effect (Portfolio Return)
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Systematic risk 15-20 Portfolio Risk Number of securities Systematic (Market) Risk Unsystematic (unique) Risk
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CAPM RfRf RmRm Retur n 1 Systematic Risk Security Market Line (SML)
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Rf = Risk Free therefore = 0 Rm = Market Portfolio (max diversification - all systematic) therefore = 1 SML can be written as an equation: R j = R f + j (R m - R f ) Called CAPM
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RyRy Market Return R m Slope = >1 RyRy Market Return R m Slope = <1
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Test Paying a return of 9%, gilts are at 5.5% and the FTSE averages 10.5% - what is the beta – and what does this value mean?
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Aggressive and Defensive Shares If the risk free rate is 10% and the market index has been adjusted upward from 16% to 17% what will be the effect on shares with Betas of 1.4 and 0.7 accordingly? Shares with Betas greater than 1 are aggressive - they are over-sensitive to the market Shares with Betas less than 1 are defensive - they are under-sensitive to the market
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Assumptions of CAPM perfect capital market unrestricted borrowing at the risk free rate uniformity of investor expectations forecasts based on a single time period Advantages of CAPM: provides a market based relationship between risk and return demonstrates the importance of systematic risk is one of the best methods of calculating a company's cost of equity capital can provide risk adjusted discount rates for project appraisal
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Limitations of CAPM: avoids unsystematic risk by assuming a diversified portfolio - how reliable is this? Only looks at return in the most simple of ways (rate of return not split into growth, dividends, etc.) Only based on one-period Can be difficult to estimate Rf Rm Does not work well for investments that have low betas, seasonality, low PE ratios - partly because it overstates the rate of return needed for high betas and understates the rate needed for low betas
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Irredeemable Securities: In this case the company never returns the principal but pays interest in perpetuity. An equation we have seen before with I (interest) replacing the dividend (D) Note that tax relief relates to the company and not the market value
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Redeemable Securities: Debenture priced at £74 with a coupon of 10% (remember this is 10% of £100). The interest has just been paid and there are four years until the redemption (at par) and final interest are paid. IRR of cashflows
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YearCashflowDiscount FactorPV (74.00)1.00(74.00) 110.000.878.70 210.000.767.56 310.000.666.58 4110.000.5762.89 NPV11.73 @15% YearCashflowDiscount FactorPV (74.00)1.00(74.00) 110.000.828.20 210.000.676.72 310.000.555.51 4110.000.4549.65 NPV(3.92) @22%
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IRR = original % + Lowest %0.15 Difference in %0.07 Higher return11.73 Range between high and low15.649 Higher Divided by Range0.7493 Times by Difference0.0524 Return pa20%
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Interesting point: Debt redeemable at current market price has the same cost (and formula) as irredeemable debt
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Others Convertible –Redemption value is higher of cash redemption or future value of shares Non-tradable debt –‘normal’ loans – just use (1-t) Preference sahres –Not really debt but use D/P
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WACC Step by Step Approach: Calculate weights for each source of capital (source/total) Estimate cost of each source Multiply 1 and 2 for each source Add up the result of 3 to get combined cost of capital
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WACC 0 Cost of Cap % X Gearing Cost of equity WACC Cost of debt
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Market Value of firm 0 £ X Gearing Market value of equity
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Market value MV of company = Future Cash Flows WACC
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