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Published byMyles Barber Modified over 9 years ago
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LO: to know about Mill’s approach to Utilitarianism HMK: Can you come up with an ethical situation and outline where Bentham and Mill would disagree on the correct course of action?
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What did you find?
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All types of pleasure and pain can be measured on the same scale Pleasures can be compared quantitatively because there is no difference between them Bentham once said that “quantity of pleasure being equal, push-pin (a simple child’s game) is as good as poetry.” What is good and bad for each person is a matter for each person to decide by following the hedonic calculus
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Democratic Egalitarian (classless) “Everybody is to count for one, and nobody for more than one.” “No one person’s pleasure is greater than another's.” In keeping with the enlightenment thinking the Hedonic Calculus was a rational and scientific way to measure pleasure. Bentham claimed that goodness could be empirically (through experience) proven. Can you think of some issues with this?
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Too simplistic – pleasure is not the only value Too complicated – How do you measure pleasure? There are too many variables involved. It is difficult to assign a score. Based on this philosophy, a pig enjoying his life would constitute a higher moral state than a slightly dissatisfied Socrates.
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This activity is designed to develop your ability to peer-teach You will be ‘equipped-to-hit’ with a handout, to teach your partner more about Utilitarianism. (Yes those in the orange group have a heavier load!) Your partner will have something different to you, so you will both have something to learn from each other! Questions to ask: 1.How did Bentham and Mill agree with each other? 2.Which aspect of Bentham’s theory did Mill take issue with? 3.How did Mill develop the theory? 4.How are pleasure and happiness different? Can you give an example? Questions to ask: 1.How did Bentham and Mill agree with each other? 2.Which aspect of Bentham’s theory did Mill take issue with? 3.How did Mill develop the theory? 4.How are pleasure and happiness different? Can you give an example? Question to ask: 1.How did Aristotle influence Mill? 2.What did Mill say about Higher and Lower pleasures? Question to ask: 1.How did Aristotle influence Mill? 2.What did Mill say about Higher and Lower pleasures?
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Mill agreed with Bentham in emphasizing that a persons’ well being is of the utmost importance. Mill agreed with the utility principle but had an issue with the quantitative element. Mill developed a system of higher and lower pleasures. To pursue pleasures of the intellect were ‘higher’ than, say, the pursuits of pleasures of the body.
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Mill wanted to reformulate the utilitarian theory to reflect the fact that pleasures are not all of equal value. He also wanted to take human nature into account.
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Pleasure is not the same as happiness! There are two main differences between pleasure and happiness PLEASURE Gratification PLEASURE pursued as an end in its own right HAPPINESS Satisfaction HAPPINESS, an indirect by-product of another activity
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…A divorced, wealthy, young man may seek pleasure from drugs, alcohol and an active sex life with many partners, but lack the happiness of true friendship and the love of his family
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Mill’s utilitarianism has been referred to as being eudaimonistic (human well being) utilitarianism, as opposed to Bentham’s hedonistic (pleasure) utilitarianism. Eudaimonia is found in the writings of Aristotle
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Aristotle distinguished between pleasure and happiness For Mill the difference in happiness over pleasure is significant; happiness having a higher qualitative edge over the quantity of lower bestial (base) pleasures
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Mill defines utilitarianism as…“The creed which accepts as the foundation of morals, Utilitarianism, or the greatest happiness principle, holds that actions are right in proportion as they tend to promote happiness, wrong as they tend to produce the reverse of happiness. By happiness is intended pleasure and absence of pain: by unhappiness pain and privation of pleasure.” Utilitarianism Chapter 2
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“It is better to be a human being dissatisfied than a pig satisfied; better to be Socrates dissatisfied than a fool satisfied.” Mill, 1863, Chapter 2 Mill maintained that pleasures of the mind were higher than those of the body. To pursue bodily pleasures – food, drink, drugs and sex – was not as high an objective as those that are intellectually demanding.
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Are bodily pleasures lower than intellectual pleasures? On your own, arrange the following from higher to lower quality: eating, listening to music, making music, drinking alcohol, watching a good movie, viewing beautiful artwork, spending time with your partner, spending time with your friends, attending family gatherings, eating chocolate, reading or hearing poetry, playing sport, achieving fame.
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How do we distinguish between two higher pleasures? How could the pleasures to be gained from playing Bach be measured against the pleasures to be gained from seeing a Shakespearian play? Give examples if you can. Is it better to be intellectually aware of the world’s imperfections and the sufferings of people and, hence, be unhappy or dissatisfied, or is it better to be blissfully ignorant of the world’s troubles and, hence, be happy and content with life?
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Can you produce a final report of your notes outlining all of the questions below! 1.How did Bentham and Mill agree with each other? 2.Which aspect of Bentham’s theory did Mill take issue with? 3.How did Mill develop the theory? 4.How are pleasure and happiness different? Can you give an example? 5.How did Aristotle influence Mill? 6.What did Mill say about Higher and Lower pleasures? 1.How did Bentham and Mill agree with each other? 2.Which aspect of Bentham’s theory did Mill take issue with? 3.How did Mill develop the theory? 4.How are pleasure and happiness different? Can you give an example? 5.How did Aristotle influence Mill? 6.What did Mill say about Higher and Lower pleasures?
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