1. Anesthesia 1 Final Exam Review
55 multiple choice
3 calculations
scantron

2. Preanesthetic Time Period
5 questions

3. ASA Risk Assessment Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 4 Class 5
Slight risk, minor disease
High risk, significantly compromised
Moribund
Normal, healthy
Moderate risk, obvious disease

4. You shine a light into the right eye of a dog and the left pupil constricts. What is the best explanation?
A. head trauma
B. neuropathy
C. normal reflex
D. this is not possible

5. Preanesthetics
10 questions

6. Preanesthetics 1. Anticholinergics 2. Tranquilizers and Sedatives
phenothiazines
benzodiazepines
alpha-2 agonists
3. Opioids

7. What are anticholinergics primarily used for?
A. To sedate patients
B. To relieve anxiety
C. To relieve pain
D. To “protect the heart”

8. Premedications Acepromazine Rompun Valium Morphine Glycopyrrolate
Benzodiazepine
Narcotic
Anticholinergic
Phenothiazine
Alpha-2 Agonist

9. Premedications Butorphanol Atropine Hydromorphone Dexdomitor
Chlorpromazine
Zolazepam
Benzodiazepine
Narcotic
Anticholinergic
Phenothiazine
Alpha-2 Agonist

10. Reversal Agents Yohimbine Narcan Antisedan Flumazinel Nalbuphine
Valium
Fentanyl
Xylazine
Dexmedetomidine
Morphine

11. List some effects of anticholinergics.
Prevent bradycardia
May cause tachycardia at high doses
Mydriasis
Blocks stimulation of vagus nerve

12. Induction Agents and Injectables
10 questions

13. Injectables Barbiturates Propofol Dissociatives Etomidate Guafenesin
Locals
Neuromuscular blocking agents

14. The combination drug Telazol contains
A. Diazepam and ketamine
B. Diazepam and xylazine
C. Zolazepam and tiletamine
D. xylazine and tiletamine

15. Which of the following would not provide any analgesic effects?
A. dexdomitor
B. narcan
C. lidocaine
D. xylazine

16. Which of the following is not an example of an analgesic?
A. tetracaine
B. diprivan
C. N2O
D. butorphanol

17. Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is
A. Useful to prevent movement
B. Not to be used for cesarean section
C. An excellent caudal analgesic
D. An old procedure with little value in veterinary anesthesia today

18. Injectables Thiopental Pancuronium Propofol Bupivicaine Etomidate
Guaifenesin
Tiletamine
Dissociative
Local
Muscle relaxant
Non-barbiturate anesthetic
Barbiturate
NMB
Heart friendly induction

19. Which of the following is not a barbiturate?
A. pentobarbital
B. thiopental
C. phenobarbital
D. etomidate

20. Injectable Anesthetics
Used to induce anesthesia
Given minutes after a pre-medication
Ideal characteristics:
Rapid onset and recovery
Non-toxic
Lack of adverse cardiovascular and respiratory effects
Rapid metabolism
Analgesic effects
Muscle relaxation
When possible, they should be given to effect.

21. All could be used for epidural anesthesia except:
A. lidocaine
B. morphine
C. ketamine

22. Inhalants
8 questions

23. Advantages of Inhalants
Concentration of anesthesia in the body is changed by adjusting the delivered concentration to the patient
This is done by adjusting the vaporizer on the machine.
Inhalants are eliminated by the lungs on exhale, and have minimal metabolism.
At appropriate concentrations, they provide analgesia by creating unconsciousness
They can be used as maintenance agents and duration time is not an issue

24. Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia
A. Decreases the amount of inhalant anesthetic required
B. Slows the induction process
C. Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required
D. Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required

25. The ideal inhalant anesthetic would have all of the following characteristics except
A. Low vapor pressure
B. High solubility coefficient
C. Low MAC
D. Provide good muscle relaxation

26. Biotransformation 0.2% 2-5% 0.02 20-46% Desflurane Halothane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane

27. Variables MAC Solubility Coefficient Vapor Pressure Delivery method
Induction recovery rates
Potency

28. Monitoring
8 questions

29. Pulse oximeters give an estimate of
A. Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood
B. Respiratory rate
C. Cardiac output
D. Oxygen content of arterial blood

30. Equipment Pulse oximeter Esophageal stethoscope EKG Capnograph
Blood Gas
Blood Pressure
HR and rhythm
Expired CO2
Blood pH
Systolic and diastolic
HR and RR
Saturation of hemoglobin

31. Parameters 1. vital signs
HR, RR and depth, MM, CRT, pulse strength, BP and temperature
2. reflexes (involuntary response to stimuli)
Palpebral, corneal, pedal, swallowing, laryngeal, PLR
3. other indicators
Movement, eye position, pupil size, muscle tone, nystagmus, secretions, response to surgical stimuli
* The most reliable sign of inadequate depth is patient movement.

32. Stages and Planes Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3, plane 1 Stage 3, plane 2
Excitement phase
Overdose
Early overdose
Too light
Too deep
Optimum
Voluntary movement

33. Endotracheal Intubation
6 questions

34. Endotracheal Tube Types
Red rubber
Vinyl
Silicone
Anode
Cheap
Least irritating
High volume, low pressure cuff
Low volume, high pressure cuff
Armored
Can see respirations

35. Intubation Confirming proper placement Equipment used Tube size
Cuff inflation
Extubation

36. Which of the following best describes a silicone endotracheal tube?
A. Relatively inexpensive, flexible, low volume and high pressure cuff and a tendency to dry and crack over time
B. More expensive, less irritating to tissues with a high volume and low pressure cuff
C. Transparent, stiffer tube comprised of PVC requiring manual deflation of cuff
D. Contains a coil of metal or nylon embedded into the rubber to resist collapse

37. Equipment
8 questions

38. Machine 8 questions on machine Know these parts O2 and N2O cylinders
O2 pressure gauge
Vaporizer
O2 flush valve
Charcoal canisters
CO2 canisters
Manometer
Breathing bag
Circuits (rebreathing and non-rebreathing)
Scavenging systems

39. The oxygen pressure gauge
A. indicates how much oxygen is in the cylinder
B. indicates how much oxygen in L/min is delivered to the patient
C. reduces pressure of oxygen entering the low pressure system
D. all of the above

40. A.

41. A non-precision vaporizer would be placed
A. out of the circle
B. in the circle
C. in the high pressure portion of the system
D. either in or out of the circle

42. B. non precision are also known as VIC

43. Which of the following machine parts will remove carbon dioxide from the system?
A. scavenger system
B. charcoal canister
C. soda lyme canister
D. humid vent

44. C.

45. Flow meter setting are read in
A. mmHg
B. L/min
C. cm/H2O
D. %

46. B.

47. The manometer is used to evaluate
A. pressure of oxygen in cylinder
B. pressure in the breathing circuit
C. inhalant and oxygen flow rate
D. pressure in the oxygen line

48. B.

49. A non-rebreather is used when the patient
A. is larger than 80 pounds
B. suffering from alkalosis
C. under anesthesia for brief procedures only
D. is smaller

50. D.

51. Rebreathing systems allow for all of the following except
A. retention of heat
B. recycling of inhalant
C. faster response to dial changes on the vaporizer
D. the use of a carbon dioxide canister

52. C. you may see slower response to dial setting changes due to the recirculation of inhalant to the patient.

53. All machines require
A. a compressed gas source
B. a scavenger
C. a reservoir bag
D. all of the above

54. D.