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Clicker Question 1 What is ? A. -2/x 3 + tan(x ) + C B. -1/x – 1/(x + 1) + C C. -1/x + tan(x ) + C D. -1/x + arctan(x ) + C E. -2/x 3 + arctan(x ) + C.

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Presentation on theme: "Clicker Question 1 What is ? A. -2/x 3 + tan(x ) + C B. -1/x – 1/(x + 1) + C C. -1/x + tan(x ) + C D. -1/x + arctan(x ) + C E. -2/x 3 + arctan(x ) + C."— Presentation transcript:

1 Clicker Question 1 What is ? A. -2/x 3 + tan(x ) + C B. -1/x – 1/(x + 1) + C C. -1/x + tan(x ) + C D. -1/x + arctan(x ) + C E. -2/x 3 + arctan(x ) + C

2 Clicker Question 2 Estimate using one trapezoid, to three decimal places. A. 0.975 B. 0.822 C. 0.745 D. 1.112 E. 0.847

3 The Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (4/13/12) It turns out that we can get the exact definite integral of a function f (x ) on and interval [a, b] provided we can compute an antiderivative of f (x ). One needs only find F (x ), evaluate it at the right-hand endpoint b, evaluate it at the left-hand endpoint a, and subtract the two values!

4 Statement of the FTC If F (x ) is any antiderivative of f (x ), then So, to get exact answers to integral questions, we need only find an antiderivative and evaluate it twice! This is VERY POWERFUL theorem.

5 Examples Previously we estimated the area under f (x ) = x 3 on [0, 2] (using 2 trapezoids) to be 5 sq. units. According to the FTC, what’s the exact answer? Does it make sense that it’s smaller? Previously we estimated the area under f (x ) = cos(x ) on [0,  /2] (using 2 trapezoids) to be.95 sq. units. According to the FTC, what’s the exact answer? Does it make sense that it’s larger?

6 Clicker Question 3 According to the FTC, what is the exact area under f (x ) = e x on the interval [0, 3]? A. e 3 B. 3e 2 C. (1/4)e 4 – 1 D. e 3 – 1 E. (1/4)e 4 – 1

7 Remarks on the FTC The FTC is not a “magic wand” which will always work. It depends on being able to write down an antiderivative of the given function. This may or may not be possible. What is ?

8 Remarks (continued) The FTC actually has two parts. This part (called Part 2 by our text) says that you can use the antiderivative (a function) to get the definite integral (a number). Part 1 says if you can turn the definite integral into a function by “freeing up” the right hand endpoint, that function is an antiderivative.

9 Assignment for Monday On page 395 of our text, do Exercises 19-41 odd. Test #2 corrections are due Tuesday (4/17) at 4:45.


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