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Hamiltonian Mechanics (For Most Cases of Interest) We just saw that, for large classes of problems, the Lagrangian terms can be written (sum on i): L = L 0 (q,t) + q i a i (q,t) + (q i ) 2 T i (q,t) (A) If the Lagrangian can be written in the form of (A), we can do the algebraic manipulations in steps 2-5 in the Hamiltonian mechanics recipe in general, once & for all! Do this by matrix manipulation, as follows: Form all q i into an n dimensional column vector q. Its transpose is a row vector q. Define also a column vector a = a(t), made up of the a i (q,t) from (A) & a n n square matrix T = T(t), made up of the T i (q,t).
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The Lagrangian can then be written: L = L(q,q,t) = L 0 (q,t) + qa(t) + (½)qT(t)q (B) For example, in the special case q i = (x,y,z) & T is diagonal: m 0 0 x (½)qT(t)q = (½)(x,y,z) 0 m 0 y = (½)m(x 2 +y 2 +z 2 ) 0 0 m z and a x qa(t) = (x,y,z) a y = a x x + a y y + a z z = a r a z The Hamiltonian in this notation is (using (B)): H = qp – L = q(p – a) – (½)qT(t)q – L 0 (C)
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Lagrangian: L(q,q,t) = L 0 (q,t) + qa(t) + (½)qT(t)q (B) Hamiltonian: H = q(p – a) – (½)qT(t)q – L 0 (C) Conjugate momentum: p = Tq + a Generalized Velocity: q = T -1 (p –a) (assuming T -1 exists!) Transpose of Generalized Velocity: q = (p - a)T -1 Combine all this into Hamiltonian H (C) to eliminate the dependence of H on q & express it as a function of p only! H = (½)(p – a)T -1 (p –a) - L 0 (q,t) (D) If the Lagrangian L can be written in the form (C), we can immediately skip all intermediate steps & write the Hamiltonian H in the form (D). That is: Steps 2-5 in the Hamiltonian mechanics recipe have been done in general, once & for all & can be skipped & (D) can be used immediately!
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Consider: H = (½)(p – a)T -1 (p – a) - L 0 (q,t) (D) Formally obtain the inverse KE matrix T -1 as: T -1 (T c )|T| -1 where |T| determinant of the KE matrix T T c cofactor matrix with elements = (T c ) jk = (-1) j+k |M jk | where |M jk | determinant of M jk = matrix obtained from T by leaving out the j th row & the k th column H = (½)(p – a)(T c )|T| -1 (p – a) - L 0 (q,t) (E) Summary: If the Lagrangian is L(q,q,t) = L 0 (q,t) + qa(t) + (½)qT(t)q the Hamiltonian has the form (E). This happens for almost every case of practical interest! So, in MANY cases we can skip 4 of the 5 steps in the recipe & go directly to (E)!
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In the simple example from before: m 0 0 m -1 0 0 m 2 0 0 T = 0 m 0 T -1 = 0 m -1 0 T c = 0 m 2 0 0 0 m 0 0 m -1 0 0 m 2 |T| = m 3 EXAMPLE 1: A particle in a conservative Central Force Field, using the spherical coordinates (r,θ, ). Potential V = V(r). KE: T = (½)mv 2 = (½)m(r 2 + r 2 θ 2 + r 2 2 sin 2 θ) = T(r,r,θ,θ, ) Clearly, since force is conservative, Hamiltonian H = T + V. However, is writing H directly in terms of the above T correct? NO!!!!! H MUST be expressed in terms of the momenta p, not the velocities (r,θ, )!
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V = V(r), T = (½)m(r 2 + r 2 θ 2 + r 2 2 sin 2 θ) = T(r,r,θ,θ, ) H = T + V. We can either follow the matrix formalism or the recipe & find that the proper way to write H is: H(r,θ,p r, p θ,p ) = (2m) -1 [(p r ) 2 + (p θ ) 2 r -2 + (p ) 2 r -2 sin -2 θ] + V(r) The same problem in Cartesian Coordinates. (Sum on i = 1,2,3): The KE is then: T = (½)mv 2 = (½)mx i x i The PE is: V(r) = V([x i x i ] ½ ) Is writing H = T + V directly in terms of the above T correct? NO!!!!! H MUST be expressed in terms of the momenta p, not the velocities (x i )! Can either follow the matrix formalism or the recipe & find that the proper way to write H is: H = (2m) -1 (p i p i ) +V([x i x i ] ½ ) = (2m) -1 (p p) + V([x i x i ] ½ )
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We can take components of the vector p relative to any coordinate system we wish: spherical coordinates, etc. In spherical coordinates, (r,θ, ) the components of p are denoted: (p) r, (p) θ, (p) Note some notational confusion might arise here! Don’t confuse the canonical momenta with these components of the vector p! For example, the canonical momentum corresponding to the spherical coordinate θ is (from the Lagrange or matrix formalisms): p θ (∂L/∂θ) (Tq + a) θ Has units of & is angular momentum! The θ component of the vector p is (θ = unit vector): (p) θ p θ Has units of & is linear momentum! Clearly, p θ (p) θ ! It’s similar, of course for the components!
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EXAMPLE 2: A nonrelativistic particle, mass m & charge q moving in an electromagnetic field. From Ch. 1, the Lagrangian (with velocity dependent potential) is: L = (½)mv 2 - q + qA v (I) The general Lagrangian we had was of the form (q here is a coordinate, NOT a charge!): L = L 0 (q,t) + q i a i (q,t) + (q i ) 2 T i (q,t) (A) Comparing gives: L 0 = - q and q i a i (q,t) = qA v Using Cartesian coords, the Lagrangian (I) can be written (Sum on i = 1,2,3): L = (½)mx i x i + qA i x i - q (II)
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The 2 nd term in L is obviously linear in x i. The vector a in the formalism we just developed has elements qA i. Hamiltonian H T + V. However, H = total energy, since for the EM field, the energy is determined by the scalar potential alone. Canonical momenta (from the Lagrange or matrix formalisms): p i (∂L/∂x i ) (Tq + a) i = mx i + qA i (III) (Note: p i mx i !) We had the Hamiltonian: H = (½)(p – a)T -1 (p – a) - L 0 (q,t) (D) Using (III) in (D) gives (Sum on i = 1,2,3): H = (p i – qA i )(p i – qA i )(2m) -1 + q With vectors, the proper Hamiltonian (for a particle in an EM field) is: H = (p – qA) 2 (2m ) -1 + q (IV)
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Obviously, Hamilton’s equations aren’t symmetric in the coordinates q & the momenta p: q i ( H/ p i ) p i - ( H/ q i ) Physicists like symmetry!!! Various schemes have been devised to come up with more symmetric equations of motion. Goldstein discusses one scheme: n degrees of freedom. Construct a column matrix η with 2n elements, the 1 st n = the q’s & the 2 nd n = the p’s: η i q i η i+n p i i n Also: define the column vector ( H/ η): ( H/ η) i = ( H/ q i ), ( H/ η) i+n = ( H/ p i ) i n
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Define a 2n 2n square matrix made of 4 n n square matrices 1, -1, & 0: 0 1 0 -1 J -1 0 transpose: J = 1 0 Clearly: JJ = JJ = 1 = 1 0 Also: J = -J = J -1 ; J 2 = -1 0 1 |J| = 1 In this notation, Hamilton’s eqtns (matrix form) become: η = J( H/ η) (1) Example: n = 2: Coords q 1, q 2, momenta p 1, p 2, (1) becomes (using Hamilton’s eqtns): What advantage does this have ? I don’t see any!
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